Answer:
flexibility
Explanation:
According to classical economists, the price-wage-interest rate flexibility refers to a combination of flexible factors that maintains economic stability:
- Flexible interest rates keeps the money markets (loans) in equilibrium.
- Flexible wages keeps the labor market in equilibrium.
- Flexible prices keeps the goods and services markets in equilibrium.
Therefore, if spending declines, the economy will self-adjust using flexible interest rates (interest rates should lower), flexible wages (wages should lower) and flexible prices (prices should lower) until the economy rebounds.
Answer: Balance of Trade
Explanation:
<em>Balance of trade</em> is the difference between the value of exports from a country and the value of imports into the country. When the value of exports is greater than imports, the balance of trade is positive and the country has a <em>trade surplus</em>. While, when the value of exports is less than the value of imports, the balance of trade is negative and the country has a <em>trade deficit</em>.
In this case, Wichasha's exports is higher than the total value of its imports so, it has a trade surplus or positive balance of trade.
Answer:
Option (B) is the right answer.
Explanation:
According to the investment company Act of 1940, the investment companies are those companies whose main business is to gathers investment capital to invest them in marketable securities.
Hence According to the scenario, the most appropriate answer is option (B).
While the other option is incorrect because of the following reason:
- Brokers/dealers can not be considered as an investment company because they are not the company.
- Pooled investments in metals are not an investment company but considered as the commodity pool.
- Insurance companies are also not investment companies.
Answer:
$63,000
Explanation:
Straight line method charges a fixed amount of depreciation for the period the asset is used in the business.
Depreciation Expense = (Costs - Salvage Value) ÷ Estimated useful life
therefore,
2021
Depreciation Expense = $420000 ÷ 4 = $105,000
2022
One month has already expired, therefore the remaining useful life out of 6 years will be 5.
New Depreciable Amount = Cost - Accumulated depreciation to date
= $420,000 - $105,000
= $315,000
Depreciation expense = $315,000 ÷ 5 = $63,000
Conclusion :
the revised depreciation expense for 2022 is $63,000
Explanation:
Risk management is to increase a firm ’s profitability;
(1) Raise all use of borrowing by them.
(2) Preserve their optimum budget for resources in accordance.
(3) Reduce potential distress-related expenses.
(4) Make use of their comparable liquidity advantages compared to the individual's liquidity capacity.
