The question is kind of tricky. D-Day was the code word for the Allied invasion of France, so D is definitely a possible answer. But the PURPOSE of that invasion was in part to defend Britain, which at the time was being threatened by Nazi air attacks and by a possible Nazi invasion. So A is possible as well.
The overthrow of Mussolini was certainly a factor in the Allied strategy, but the invasion of Italy, not France, was how that task was accomplished. So C is out.
There's competing evidence over how much the Allies knew about Auschwitz by the time of D-Day. Either way, the immediate purpose of D-Day was not to free the Jews from Auschwitz, though that was an ultimate result of D-Day. So B is out.
Since the question is asking the PURPOSE of D-Day, I think A is the best answer. D is more of a description of what D-Day WAS rather than an explanation of its PURPOSE.
The King might have ignored the colonists petitions for redress because he believed he was well within his authority to impose the imperial policies that the British were imposing on the colonists. Additionally the British believed that they had protected and taken care of the colonists in a number of wars and therefore deserved to be paid through taxes for the services they had provided. In addition the King had numerous other colonies and wanted to prevent any of the colonies from believing they had the ability or right for self government.
D) Because South America is in the Western Hemisphere while the Mediterranean Sea is in the Eastern.
