i put it in coments sence it says it is inapropreait
The value of the derivative of the function g(x) at x = 1 will be 1/3. Then the correct option is A.
<h3>What is an inverse function?</h3>
A function that may convert into another function is known as an inverse function or anti-function.
If the function is f(x) = sinx + 2x + 1.
Then the derivative of an inverse function g(x) of a function f(x) at a given value (a) will be

The derivative of f(x) will be
f'(x) = cos x + 2
Then the given value of a will be
a = 1
g(x) = f⁻¹(x)
put x = 0, then we have
f(0) = sin 0 + 2(0) + 1
f(0) = 1
Put x = 1, in the function f⁻¹(x). Then we have
f⁻¹(1) = 0
and
g(1) = 0
Then put a = 1, then we have

More about the inverse function link is given below.
brainly.com/question/2541698
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9 on the top as well so 9 x 2 18 3x2 6 3
Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
R is the event of getting a red jelly bean. 22 out of the 150 jelly beans are red. That means it is a
chance of getting a red jelly bean.
Simplified that is 
Answer:
24 , 12x12 = 144. , 144/6 =24