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Mars2501 [29]
3 years ago
6

What is the ratio for the surface areas of the cones shown below, given that

Mathematics
1 answer:
andreyandreev [35.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The ratio for the surface areas is equal to 4

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

Find the scale factor

we know that

If two figures are similar, then the ratio of its corresponding sides is proportional and this ratio is called the scale factor

Let

z -----> the scale factor

In this problem

The scale factor is equal to

z=\frac{2}{1} ----> the ratio of its corresponding radii or its corresponding altitudes

step 2

Find the ratio for the surface areas of the cones

we know that

If two figures are similar, then the ratio of its surface areas is equal to the scale factor squared

Let

z -----> the scale factor

x ----> the surface area of the larger cone

y ----> the surface area of the smaller cone

z^{2} =\frac{x}{y}

we have

z=\frac{2}{1}

substitute

(\frac{2}{1})^{2}=\frac{x}{y}

4=\frac{x}{y}

The ratio for the surface areas is equal to 4

That means-----> The surface area of the larger cone is 4 times the surface area of the smaller cone

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Svetach [21]
Presumably you should be doing this using calculus methods, namely computing the surface integral along \mathbf r(u,v).

But since \mathbf r(u,v) describes a sphere, we can simply recall that the surface area of a sphere of radius a is 4\pi a^2.

In calculus terms, we would first find an expression for the surface element, which is given by

\displaystyle\iint_S\mathrm dS=\iint_S\left\|\frac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial u}\times\frac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial v}\right\|\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv

\dfrac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial u}=a\cos u\cos v\,\mathbf i+a\cos u\sin v\,\mathbf j-a\sin u\,\mathbf k
\dfrac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial v}=-a\sin u\sin v\,\mathbf i+a\sin u\cos v\,\mathbf j
\implies\dfrac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial u}\times\dfrac{\partial\mathbf r}{\partial v}=a^2\sin^2u\cos v\,\mathbf i+a^2\sin^2u\sin v\,\mathbf j+a^2\sin u\cos u\,\mathbf k
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\displaystyle\iint_S\mathrm dS=\int_{u=0}^{u=\pi}\int_{v=0}^{v=2\pi}a^2\sin u\,\mathrm dv\,\mathrm du=2\pi a^2\int_{u=0}^{u=\pi}\sin u
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=-2\pi a^2(-1-1)
=4\pi a^2

as expected.
6 0
3 years ago
8 miles is approximately equal to 6 km. How many km are equal to 28 miles? How many miles are equal to 42 km?
Pani-rosa [81]
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3 years ago
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Answer:

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