Answer:
the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Explanation:
The computation of the post money valuation is shown below:
Given that
Value of 400,000 shares is $1 million.
So,
The Value of 1 share is
= $1 million ÷ 400,000
= $2.5
And,
Total number of shares is
= 400,000 + 200,000 + 100,000
= 700,000
Now
Total value of shares is
= $2.5 × 700,000
= $1,750,000
hence, the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Inflation is an economic term that can be defined as the increase in the prices of a product on the market in a given period.
It can occur due to several factors, when there is an imbalance between supply and demand, then it is correct to say that when the demand for a product is greater than the supply, there will be an increase in prices and, consequently, inflation.
It can also occur when there are situations of monopoly, which is the pricing of a product controlled by a company.
Another factor that causes inflation is the increase in a company's production costs, which can be caused by factors such as scarcity, or economic crisis.
Uncontrolled inflation has a negative impact on the consumer's life, which starts to lose its purchasing capacity and has its quality of life reduced.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Revenue on account = $54,000
Cash collections of accounts receivable = $2,300
Expenses for the period = $52,100
company paid dividends = $450
Net income for the period:
= Revenue on account - Expenses for the period
= $54,000 - $52,100
= $1,900
Therefore, the net income for the period is $1,900.
Answer:
A net cash outflow or cash used up of $20,000
Explanation:
The statement of cash flows show the movement in cash balances between the start and end of an accounting period. This movement is as a result of 3 groups of activities namely; operating, investing and financing activities.
Cash activities related to elements of working capital are recognized in the operating section. An increase in a current asset other than cash is treated as an out flow of cash while an increase in a current liability is treated as an inflow of cash and vice versa.
Hence the net effect on cash from operations under the indirect method
= -$43,000 + $23,000
= -$20,000
Answer:
C) typically zero at initiation.
Explanation:
The reason that their value is zero at initiation is that they are formed in a way that is neither beneficial for the short of the long party therefore they have a value of 0.
