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Keith_Richards [23]
3 years ago
7

Im thinking the answer is bacteria but I'm not sure

Biology
1 answer:
Zina [86]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes you are right

Explanation:

I did it in test

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In humans, the allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). At another gene locus, the allele for broad
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Answer:

<h2>1. DdBb</h2><h2>2. ddBb</h2><h2>3. DB, Db, dB and db.</h2><h2>4.  dB and db.</h2><h2>5 50% or 1/2</h2><h2>6. 1/8 </h2>

Explanation:

As given, Allele for dimples(D) is dominant over alleles for no dimples (d), so D  is dominant over d.

Allele for broad eyebrows (B) is dominant over allele for slender eyebrows (b), so B is dominant over b.

A man heterozygous for both traits ( DdBb) marries a women who has no dimple and heterozygous fro eyebrow (ddBb)

So cross is =  DdBb × ddBb

1). Genotype of the man is DdBb.

2). Genotype of the woman is ddBb.

3). Genotype of the gametes produced by the man are DB, Db, dB and db.

4). Genotype of the gametes produced by the woman are dB and db.

5). Probability that their first child will have dimples 50% or 1/2

6). Probability that there first child will have both dimples as well as slender eyebrows 1/8

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