Answer:
5.4%
Explanation:
Several years ago the Haverford Company sold a $1,000 par value bond that now has 25 years to maturity and an 8.00% annual coupon that is paid quarterly. The bond currently sells for $900.90, and the company’s tax rate is 40%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation
Face value of bond = coupon amount / interest rate
1000 = 80 / 8%
Therefore 900.9 = 80 / revised interest rate
multiply both sides by the 'revised interest rate
revised interest rate x 900.9 = 80
Hence, revised interest rate = 80 / 900.9 = 9%
Secondly if the company’s tax rate is 40%, the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation = kd (1 - t)
where:
kd = Cost of debt
t = tax rate
Therefore cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation = 9% (1-0.4) = 5.4%
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The amount that the company owe the bank in hard dollar fees, after adjustment for earnings credit is:$1081.
<h3>Amount owe after adjustment</h3>
Using this formula
Amount owe=Service charges-(Deposit balance×(1-Reserve requirement)×ECR× Number of days/Number of days in a year)
Let plug in the formula
Amount owe = 2500 - (4126000× (1-.10)×0.45%×31/365)
Amount owe = 2500 - (4126000×.90×0.45%×31/365)
Amount owe=2500-1,419
Amount owe =$1081
Therefore the amount that the company owe the bank in hard dollar fees, after adjustment for earnings credit is:$1081.
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Answer:
Direct Material Price Variance = $300 Favorable
Explanation:
Direct Material Price Variance = (Standard Price - Actual Price)
Actual Quantity
Standard Price = $4 per pound
Actual Price =
= 
Since the actual price is less than the standard price the variance will be favorable as the amount paid for actual use is less then the estimated standard cost.
Thus, direct material price variance = ($4 - $3.8)
1,500
= $300 Favorable