Answer:
(1) .20 (2) .40 (3) .12 (4) Less than
Step-by-step explanation:
You have to look at the table. There are 5 columns with 10 rows. 5x10=50
Then simply count the boxes that have the correct number of currency for instance, if they are asking for EXACTLY 1 dime then you rule out the ones that have 2 or 3 dimes and only the count the ones that have a single dime. So you count PDN but you would not count PDD. There are 20 boxes that have a single dime in them. 20 out of the 50 boxes. 20/50=.40 (answer 2)
The estimated probability that exactly two of the three coins Avery randomly picked are nickels is .
20
The estimated probability that exactly one of the three coins Avery randomly picked is a dime is .
40
The estimated probability that all three coins Avery randomly picked are pennies is .
12
The answer to #1 is .20 or 20% and the answer to #2 is .40 or 40%. 20% is less than 40% so...
The estimated probability that exactly two of the three coins Avery randomly picked are nickels is LESS THAN the estimated probability that exactly one of the three coins Avery randomly picked is a dime.
Step-by-step explanation:
Use arc length:
s = rθ
where r is the radius and θ is the angle in radians.
a) First, convert the angle to radians (1 degree = 60 minutes).
77 ⁵⁰/₆₀° × (π radian / 180°) = 1.358 radians
s = rθ
s = (9.67 in) (1.358 rad)
s = 13.1 in
b) s = rθ
4 in = (9.67 in) θ
θ = 0.414 radians
θ = 23.7°
θ = 23° 42'
23308 is the answer of how many is even with no repitition
To find what 86% of 40 is, first convert 86% to a decimal, then multiply that decimal by 40.
86% = 0.86
0.86 • 40 = 34.4
So 86% of 40 is 34.4.
so the value of the function at x=-3 is -192
