Answer:
an increase of nationalism in Europe and Latin America
Explanation:
Sociologist William Julius Wilson uses this term Jobless ghettos to describe high-poverty minority neighborhoods where the majority of adults do not work.
The negative urban population in the America has grown from 33 percent of all nationwide poverty in 1959 to almost 50 percent in 1991, maximum hastily in African American neighborhoods.
Social scientists like Wilson generally outline ghetto neighborhoods as those inside ghetto poverty census tracts, a proper time period for regions "wherein at least forty percent of the residents are terrible." He unearths it alarming that between 1970 and 1990, 1,203 tracts fell to ghetto poverty stage within the country's a hundred largest cities.
Wilson refutes the argument made by way of sociologists Douglas Massey and Nancy Denton that despair-generation ghetto poverty in the 1930s was simply as focused because it changed into in the Seventies due to the fact African American communities suffered identical racial segregation no matter the 12 months. but segregation does no longer provide an explanation for why, from 1970 to 1990, concentrated poverty has tripled in sure African American neighborhoods, nor does it remember "the rapid boom of joblessness, which accelerated through these two decades."
Learn more about Jobless ghettos here brainly.com/question/7730797
#SPJ4
Answer: Angela loses because she had entered into a 'personal satisfaction contract' with Franklin which clearly mentioned the clause which said that Angela would be paid only if the painting is acceptable in Franklin's sole judgment.
Explanation: A personal satisfaction contract legalizes the right of the receiving party of not paying the giving party on the grounds of dissatisfaction over the work or service dispensed by the latter. In the given case, Angela had agreed to the clause which mentioned that she would only be paid if her work satisfies Franklin's expectation from her work. On the grounds of dissatisfaction, Franklin rejects to pay her and she also loses the lawsuit filed against Franklin.
Answer:
It was used by the Catholic Church and in academic settings.
Explanation:
Latin was for 20 centuries the official language of the Church. Academic writing and research was published in Latin. Masses were said in Latin, despite the fact that only the clergy and the best educated people (very few people during the Middle Ages) were the only ones who could speak and understand it. It was only in the second half of the 20th century that the Roman Catholic Church authorized masses in the local and national languages of each country.
I hope I can help you :)