Answer:
16
Step-by-step explanation:
let the number be x , then
x = 15 ( multiply both sides by 4 to clear the fraction )
3x = 60 ( divide both sides by 3 )
x = 20 , then
× 20 = 4 × 4 = 16
Answer:
Because
Step-by-step explanation:
It goes into 1,3,5 and 15
A prime number only goes into 1 and itself
Answer:
80
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.818
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the shipment has a ton of aspirin tablets, we can assume that we pick 13 of them <em>with</em> <em>reposition, </em>because the probability shoudn't change dramatically from the probability of picking without reposition if we do so.
We call D the amount of defective tablets. If we assume that we pick the tablets with reposition, then we obtain that D is a random variable of Binomial distribution with parameters 13 and 0.6 (the probability of picking a defective tablet).
We want D to be at most one. To calculate the probability of that event we add up the probability of D being equal to 0 and the probability of D being equal to one. Since D is binomial, we have
We conclude that

Hence, the shipment will be accepted with probability 0.818
<em>I hope this helps you!</em>
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation: