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eduard
2 years ago
8

11. . Which condition is most necessary to the process of industrialization

History
1 answer:
Julli [10]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

availability of investment capital

Explanation:

The condition that is most necessary to the process of industrialization in a society is availability of investment capital.

This is because capital is one of the factors of production that is very important in any business or production venture. If there is availability of investment capital, then industrialization would be increasingly possible.

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How did the production of iron change during the industrial revolution ?
stellarik [79]

Answer:

THeyy needed to make more iron and werent ableto supply it I think.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
In which region of the United States is Georgia located?
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

Cause I know my geography and I live there

3 0
3 years ago
A. The Chesapeake and New England regions had many differences in development, but they also had similarities.
Kisachek [45]

A thesis statement that would not be acceptable is <u>B. The </u><u>Chesapeake </u><u>and </u><u>New England colonies </u><u>developed into</u><u> two distinct societies </u><u>based on their </u><u>geography</u><u>, </u><u>reasons </u><u>for </u><u>founding</u><u>, </u><u>economic </u><u>characteristics, and </u><u>relationships </u><u>with </u><u>American Indians.</u>

You did not include the prompt in the question but the above should be the best answer.

The New England Colonies and the Chesapeake colonies were different in that:

  • New England colonies were founded to escape religious persecution while the Chesapeake colonies were founded to make profit
  • New England colonies engaged in shipping, food production and lumbering whereas the Chesapeake colonies focused on tobacco.

Even though they were different in the above regard, their treatment of Native Americans was the same as they both started off with peaceful relations with the Natives which eventually deteriorated into war.

We can therefore conclude that even though they differed in several ways, they did not differ in Native treatment which would make option B wrong.

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/18193023.</em>

3 0
2 years ago
Poisonous gas, which was heavier than air, was used in World War 1. Why might gas be a more effective weapon against soldiers in
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

The use of toxic chemicals as weapons dates back thousands of years, but the first large scale use of chemical weapons was during World War I.[1][2] They were primarily used to demoralize, injure, and kill entrenched defenders, against whom the indiscriminate and generally very slow-moving or static nature of gas clouds would be most effective. The types of weapons employed ranged from disabling chemicals, such as tear gas, to lethal agents like phosgene, chlorine, and mustard gas. This chemical warfare was a major component of the first global war and first total war of the 20th century. The killing capacity of gas was limited, with about ninety thousand fatalities from a total of 1.3 million casualties caused by gas attacks. Gas was unlike most other weapons of the period because it was possible to develop countermeasures, such as gas masks. In the later stages of the war, as the use of gas increased, its overall effectiveness diminished. The widespread use of these agents of chemical warfare, and wartime advances in the composition of high explosives, gave rise to an occasionally expressed view of World War I as "the chemist's war" and also the era where weapons of mass destruction were created.[3][4]

The use of poison gas by all major belligerents throughout World War I constituted war crimes as its use violated the 1899 Hague Declaration Concerning Asphyxiating Gases and the 1907 Hague Convention on Land Warfare, which prohibited the use of "poison or poisoned weapons" in warfare.[5][6] Widespread horror and public revulsion at the use of gas and its consequences led to far less use of chemical weapons by combatants during World War II.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What is a result of Asoka's conversion to Buddhism? He converted the Greeks to a new religion. O He committed to a principle of
eduard

The correct answer is B) He committed to a principle of nonviolence.

What was a result of Asoka's conversion to Buddhism was that he committed to a principle of nonviolence.

Let's have in mind that Asoka had been a fierce and violent warrior and Emperor. He showed no mercy to his enemies.

However, after so much pain and destruction caused in war, he changed.

Asoka imitated the Buddha principles and started to meditate beneath a tree.

Emperor Ashoka decided to convert to Buddhism because one day he realized the damage he had created to other people during the Kalinga War. He felt remorse and he changed his life. He found peace in the teachings of Budha and considered it beneficial to all humans and animals, to the degree he ordered to build many temples or stupas.

8 0
3 years ago
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