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jekas [21]
3 years ago
9

State the slope and y-intercept of the graph of y = x – 7.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]3 years ago
8 0
By slope you mean gradient? If yes then it’s 1 and the y intercept is (0, -7)
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An item is regularly priced at $30. It is now priced at a discount of 30% off the regular price. What is the price now?
stiv31 [10]
The price of the item will be 21$
7 0
3 years ago
Solve this inequality.<br> 8x + 6 x 54
sergeinik [125]
8x+324 is the answer, all you have to do is multiple 6 times 54
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The proof diagram to complete the question state the missing reason in the proof for the letter given
melisa1 [442]

ANSWER

First proved that line p is parallel to line r

to proof

As given in the question

∠1 ≈∠5

∠1 and ∠5 are corresponding angles

by using the property of the corresponding angles

 two lines are cut by a transversal so that the corresponding angles are


congruent, then these lines are parallel.


As shown in diagram q is transversal line.

Thus by using the above property

line p is parallel to line r.

proof of 1(a)

REASON

Vertically opposite angle

The pair of angles formed when two lines intersect each other are called vertically opposite angles.

Thus

∠4 and ∠1 are vertically opposite angle

thus

∠4 ≈∠ 1

proof of 2(b)

REASON

Alternate interior angle

the pairs of angles on either side of the transversal and inside the two lines are called the alternate interior angles . If two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the alternate interior angles formed are congruent .

as line p is parallel to line r (proof above)

q is transversal

thus

∠4 ≈∠ 5

Hence proved

proof of 3 (c)

As ∠4 ≈∠5 (proof above)  

REASON

If two lines are cut by a transversal so that the alternate interior angles

are congruent, then these lines are parallel.

Thus by above property

line p is parallel to line r

Hence proved







4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Abbie spent 3/5 of her money and saved the rest. If she spent $15, how much money did she have at first? *
Finger [1]

Answer:

$25

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 = $5

2/5 = $10

3/5 = $15

4/5 = $20

5/5 = $25

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. Two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about t
Alisiya [41]

Answer:

\frac{7}{60}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that in a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. Two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about their past travel experience.

Since the two are drawn without replacement the first trial affects the second trial.  In other words, each trial is not independent of the other.

a) Hence this cannot be binomial experiment.  The reason is p=probability for each trial is not constant as first draw affect the probability for Ii draw

b) The probability that in a random sample of 2, no one has been abroad

=Prob of selecting both people from the group where no one has been abroad

We have in the group 35% i.e. 14 people never been to abroad

So required probability = Prob of selecting both from 14 people

=\frac{14C2}{40C2} \\=\frac{14*13}{40*39} \\=\frac{7}{60}

3 0
3 years ago
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