I don’t know the answer and you shouldn’t give so many points out cos people will just take them
Your answer is Vestibular
The awnser is : 2/3 ( two thirds )
Hope it helps
Explanation:
The aggregate demand curve is downward sloping. It implies price levels are falling and the quantity of output will increase as well as the domestic income. The theories that can explain why the aggregate demand curve is downward sloping: the Pigou's wealth effect, the Keynes's interest-rate effect, and the and Mundell-Fleming's exchange-rate effect.
Answer:
sec(4x) + C
Explanation:
original problem: ∫sec(4x)tan(x)dx
use integration by substitution (u-sub) by setting u = 4x
if u = 4x, then du/dx = 4 and du = 4dx (dx = du/4)
after substitution the integral is ∫sec(u)tan(u)(du/4)
move the 1/4 out of the integral by using the integral Constant rule to form 1/4∫sec(u)tan(u)du
the anti-derivative of sec(u)tan(u) is sec(u), memorize your trigonometric derivatives!!!!
after integration, we get sec(u)/4 + C , now plug u back into the equation
sec(4x) + C is the general solution