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gulaghasi [49]
3 years ago
10

Amberjack Company is trying to decide on an allocation base to use to assign manufacturing overhead to jobs. The company has alw

ays used direct labor hours to assign manufacturing overhead to products, but it is trying to decide whether it should use a different allocation base such as direct labor dollars or machine hours. Actual and estimated data for manufacturing overhead, direct labor cost, direct labor hours, and machine hours for the most recent fiscal year are summarized here:
Estimated Value Actual Value
Manufacturing overhead cost $732,000 $842,000
Direct labor cost $366,000 $377,000
Direct labor hours 14,640 hours 16,600 hours
Machine hours 18,300 hours 17,500 hours

Required:
Based on the company’s current allocation base (direct labor hours), compute the following:
a. Predetermined overhead rate.
b. Applied manufacturing overhead.
c. Over- or underapplied manufacturing overhead.
Business
1 answer:
svetoff [14.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated Value Actual Value

Manufacturing overhead cost $732,000 $842,000

Direct labor hours 14,640 hours 16,600 hours

<u>To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 732,000 / 14,640

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 50*16,600

Allocated MOH= $830,000

<u>Finally, the over/under allocation:</u>

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 842,000 - 830,000

Underapplied overhead= $12,000

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Abbie Marson is the sole owner and operator of Great Plains Company. As of the end of its accounting period, December 31, Year 1
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Answer:

b. $103,345

Explanation:

Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity

Owner's Equity (Year 1) = $908,100 - $267,845

                                       = $640,255

Owner's Equity (Year 2) = $980,279 - $233,892

                                        = $746,387

increase in Owner's Equity = Owner's Equity (Year 2) - Owner's Equity (Year 1)  

                                             = $746,387 - $640,255

                                             = $106,132

Net income during Year 2 = Increase in Owner's Equity - Additional investment + Withdrawals

                                            = $106,132 - $28,658 + $25,871

                                            = $103,345

Therefore, the amount of net income during Year 2 is $103.345.

7 0
3 years ago
The desired reserve ratio is 10 percent of deposits, and the currency drain ratio is 1 percent of deposits.
Flauer [41]

Answer:

Quantity of money changes by $50,000,000

Explanation:

Desired reserve ratio = 10% = 0.1

Currency drain ratio = 1% = 0.01

Money multiplier = (1+0.1) / (0.1+0.01) = 1.1/ 0.11 = 10

Value of securities purchased = $5 million

Change in quantity of money :

$5 million * 10 = $50 million

Currency created : currency drain ratio * change in quantity of money

0.01 * $50,000,000 = $500,000

Amount of bank deposit = quantity change - currency created

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Answer:

  • B. Thank you for your letter regarding your CRB2 home entertainment center.
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Explanation:

The ''you'' view refers to a style of writing where the sender intends to make sure that the focus is on the person receiving the correspondence.

By using the ''you'' view, the receiver becomes the subject of the correspondence such that the text and its contents and are directed at the receiver.

The correct options would be B and D because the options were directed strictly to the receiver and no one else.

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3 years ago
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4 0
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