Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash inflows:
Year 1= $11,000
Year 2= $24,000
Year 3= $36,000
To calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
Isolating PV:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
Year 1= 11,000/(1.12)= $9,821.43
Year 2= 24,000/(1.12^2)= $19,132.65
Year 3= 36,000/(1.12^3)= $25,624.09
Total= $54,578.17
the answer is b:) because high interest rates mean increased cost for all the others since it is not a fixed cost for them
Answer:
IRR = 13.05%
Explanation:
using an excel spreadsheet, the cash flows are:
year 0 = -$3,200,000
year 1 = $425,000
year 2 = $425,000 x 1.08 = $459,000
year 3 = $459,000 x 1.08 = $495,720
year 4 = $535,378
year 5 = $578,208
year 6 = $624,464
year 7 = $674,422
year 8 = $728,375
year 9 = $786,645
year 10 = $849,577
year 11 = ($849,577 x 1.08) - $480,000 = $917,543 - $480,000 = $437,543
IRR = 13.05%
The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate at which a project's NPV (net present value) would equal $0.
Answer:
d. $5,000
Explanation:
Patnode's information is missing, so I looked it up. I found the balance sheet for 2014 and 2015. Hope that it is the same question:
total depreciation expense for 2015 = change in accumulated depreciation (2015 - 2014) + change in accumulated amortization (2015 - 2014) = ($3,000 - $0) + ($3,000 - $1,000) = $3,000 + $2,000 = $5,000
Answer:
I will accept the offer if the price per painting is $56,312.41 or higher.
Explanation:
We will calculate the present value of the other option which is, selling our painting as a freelancer.
C 315,000.00
time 5
rate 0.2
PV $942,042.8241
Now, we subtract the signing bonus of 100,000
942,042.83 - 100,000 = 842,042.83
And solve for the annual proceeds from the painting we need to equalize the opportunity cost:
PV 842,042.83
time 5
rate 0.2
C $ 281,562.03
Now, we divide by the 5 painting per year:
$281,562.03 per year / 5 painting per year = $56,312.41