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Vitek1552 [10]
3 years ago
7

An article in The Globe and Mail, February 16, 2002, reported that IBM used the $300 million proceeds of a sale of one of its bu

siness units to reduce operating expenses in its fourth quarter 2001 income statement. This added about 8 cents per share to its fourth quarter earnings. As a result, IBM beat analysts' forecasts by 1 cent per share.
IBM defended its treatment by claiming that buying and selling businesses is a normal business practice, and that most of the sale proceeds related to intellectual property that it had developed. The article quotes a Merrill Lynch analyst as saying, "Our only concern is that the company could have done more to call out the magnitude of the transaction." According to the article, IBM's share price fell by 4% as a result of this news.

While not mentioned in this article, the SEC opened a preliminary inquiry into IBM's accounting practice, expressing concerns that IBM had let it be known that the reason for its higher operating earnings was tight cost controls, rather than the sale proceeds. This inquiry was subsequently dropped, but the SEC issued a bulletin reminding firms to report gains or losses on asset sales separately from operating costs.

Required

Explain why IBM's share price dropped following the Merrill Lynch analyst's comment and the news of the SEC's preliminary inquiry.
Business
1 answer:
denis-greek [22]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The sale of business units are one time events that should not be common. If the only way that IBM can show profit is by selling business divisions, in a very short time it will run out of divisions to sell. A company's intrinsic value is given by its cash flows, especially the operating cash flow.

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What is the balance of the manufacturing overhead account and is overhead underapplied or overapplied at the end of the year?.
baherus [9]

The balance of the manufacturer overhead account is Credit of $30,000, overapplied.

  • credit of $30,000, overapplied.

<h3>Underapplied Overhead vs. Overapplied Overhead</h3>

Underapplied overhead is the opposite of overapplied overhead. Overapplied overhead occurs when expenses incurred are actually less than what a company accounts for in its budget. This means that a company comes in under budget and achieves a lower amount of overhead costs during the accounting period.

Therefore, the correct answer is as given above.

learn more about overhead account from here:

brainly.com/question/26396695

3 0
3 years ago
If you have a credit card limit of $1,000, you should never carry a balance of more than $800 T/F
borishaifa [10]
The answer would be true
7 0
4 years ago
Provided other eligibility requirements are met, who is eligible for Medicare?
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

Generally, Medicare is available for people age 65 or older, younger people with disabilities and people with End Stage Renal Disease (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or transplant). You or your spouse had Medicare-covered government employment.

5 0
3 years ago
In a job order cost accounting system, when goods that have been ordered are received, the receiving department personnel count
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": receiving report.

Explanation:

A receiving report is the document in which the goods purchased and received from a supplier are recorded. The document contains the details of the supplier, the type, price, and quantity of the goods being exchanged, and the conditions of the items. It is useful to keep the inventory updated and to eliminate the pending job orders from the records.

6 0
3 years ago
Pop Consulting leased machinery to Red Inc. on July 1, 2018. The lease was recorded as a sales type lease. The present value of
labwork [276]

Answer:

The increase in earnings is $136511.56

Explanation:

Since the lease is a sale type of lease,it means that as soon as the machinery is delivered to the lessee,profit should be recognized on the lease transaction,which is computed below:

Profit on lease=present value of lease payments-costs

                         =$274149-$156000

                          =$118149

However,every six months interest is charged on the lease,which clearly indicates another source of earnings,the interest in the first six months is given below:

Interest=($274149-$44617)*8%

             =$18362.56

Please note that interest is charged after lease payment as lease payment is made in advance not in arrears.

Conclusively, the increase in earnings is $118149+$18362.56

That is $136511.56

                                                                   

5 0
3 years ago
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