Step-by-step explanation:
-9
5
0
-8
well those are the answers
Answer:
1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
first of all find the LCD of 3 and 2. The LCD would be 6.
2/3(2/2) - 1/2(3/3)
4/6 and 3/6
then you will subtract 4 and 3 and you end up with 1/6
Times what by 20% ? If you can ask me the full question i would love to help!
Answer:
<h3>
9, 11, 13, 15</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
{k - some integer}
2k+1 - the first odd integer (the least)
5(2k+1) - five times the least
5(2k+1)+3 -<u> three more than five times the least</u>
2k+1+2 = 2k+3 - the odd integer consecutive to 2k+1
2k+3+2 = 2k+5 - the next odd consecutive integer (third)
2k+5+2 = 2k+7 - the last odd consecutive integer (fourth)
2k+1+2k+3+2k+5+2k+7 - <u>the sum of four odd consecutive integers</u>
2k+1 + 2k+3 + 2k+5 + 2k+7 = 5(2k+1) + 3
8k + 16 = 10k + 5 + 3
- 10k -10k
-2k + 16 = 8
-16 - 16
-2k = -8
÷(-2) ÷(-2)
k = 4
2k+1 = 2•4+1 = 9
2k+3 = 2•4+3 = 11
2k+5 = 2•4+5 = 13
2k+7 = 2•4+7 = 15
Check: 9+11+13+15 = 48; 48-3 = 45; 45:5 = 9 = 2k+1
Add all the chips to find the total amount.
7 + 9 + 3 + 6 = 25 chips
Since there are 6 blue chips (6/25), that's the probability of just getting once.
When you pick a blue chip and it doesn't get replaced, then that means there is one fewer blue chip and one fewer from the total amount.
5/24
Multiply both probabilities.
6/25 * 5/24 = 30/600
Simplify.
30/600 → 1/20
Therefore, the answer is B
Best of Luck!
