It would be four 40×.1= four
One side of the square measures 28 inches. Use 3.14 for π.
Answer:
x = -6
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The systems of equation are identical and such there are infinitely many solutions. For the first part the correct answer is B. For the second part, the correct answer is A
Step-by-step explanation:
If we multiply the first equation by 4 the result is the second equation and thus the systems of equations are scalar multiples of each other. The solution to such a system is found by expressing one variable in terms of the other hence choice B.
Since the systems are scalar multiples of each other, if we graph them they would simply coincide since they are identical, that is they have same slope and y-intercept.
Answer and Step-by-step explanation:
Given
ax + by = c
qx + ry = s
(a) the equation has no solutions if a/q = b/r ≠ c/s, when this happens, we say the system of equations has no solution. For example
x + y = 3
x + y = 5
Subtracting first equation from the second we have:
0 = 2 which is impossible.
(b) the equations have infinite solutions if a/q = b/r = c/s, for example
x + y = 2
x + y = 2
Subtracting the first equation from the second we have
0 = 0, since this is always true, then it has infinite solutions.
(c) the equations have unique solutions if a/q ≠ b/r, for example
x + y = 2
x – y = 1
Adding the first and second equation we have
2x = 3, we can get x from here and definitely y, so we have just one solution.
