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tensa zangetsu [6.8K]
3 years ago
12

Assume the MPC is 0.625. Assuming only the multiplier effect matters, a decrease in government purchases of $10 billion will shi

ft the aggregate demand curve to the a. left by about $13.3 billion. b. left by about $26.7 billion. c. right by about $36.7 billion. d. None of the above is correct.
Business
1 answer:
expeople1 [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: b. left by about $26.7 billion.

Explanation:

The multiplier determines how much government spending affects the aggregagte demand.

Multiplier is:

= 1 / ( 1 - MPC)

= 1 / (1 - 0.625)

= 2.67

The effect on Aggregate demand is:

= Government spending * Multiplier

= -10 billion * 2.67

= -$26.7 billion

Aggregate demand will shift left by $26.7 billion to show that aggregate demand is decreasing.

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Aspiring entrepreneurs can go to the internet, experienced entrepreneurs, Chambers of Commerce, Small Businessn Administration (SBA), college/university, or the community to get their questions answered. Hope this helps.
5 0
4 years ago
2. Skip and Peggy are brother and sister and they fight about everything. Skip says that perfectly competitive firms maximize pr
finlep [7]

Answer: They are both right.

Explanation:

Firms in every market will always maximise profit where their Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost because at this point, resources are being fully utilized. This is therefore no different in a Perfectly competitive market so Skip is correct.

Peggy is also correct however because in a Perfectly Competitive market, the demand curve is perfectly elastic. This creates a situation where the Price, Marginal Revenue and Average Revenue are all the same and represent the demand curve as well.

With the Price being the same as the Marginal Revenue in a Perfectly competitive firm, that means that where the Price equals Marginal Cost is where the Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost as well so indeed perfectly competitive firms maximize profit where price equals marginal cost.

5 0
4 years ago
If price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in t
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

produce at an economic loss.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.

However, the firms always strive to maximize profits by increasing their level of output, such that P = MC. Also, the firms wouldn't be willing to leave or enter into the market because they are not making any profit, such that P=AC.

In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.

Hence, if price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will produce at an economic loss.

Additionally, Average Total Cost (ATC) can be defined as the overall cost of production divided by total output of production. It is calculated by dividing total cost by total output of production or by adding TVC and TFC.

8 0
3 years ago
Municipal bonds are issued by whom?
posledela
Municipal bonds are debt obligations issued by states, cities, counties and other governmental entities.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that Zonk is a potential leveraged buyout candidate. Assume that the buyer intends to put in place a capital structure th
vekshin1

Answer:

A.8.85%

Explanation:

Computation to determine the weighted average cost of capital for Zonk based on the new capital structure.

First step is to calculate the Cost of equity capital using this formula

Cost of equity capital = Risk free rate + (Beta*Market premium)

Let plug in the formula

Cost of equity capital = 2.3% + (1.13*5.3%)

Cost of equity capital=8.28%

Now let determine theWeighted average cost capital

Weighted average cost capital = [.70*.14*(1-.35)]+(.30*.0828)

Weighted average cost capital= [.70*.14*.65]+.02484

Weighted average cost capital=0.0637+.02484

Weighted average cost capital= .0885*100

Weighted average cost capital= 8.85%

Therefore the weighted average cost of capital for Zonk based on the new capital structure is 8.85%

4 0
3 years ago
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