Hi, you've asked an incomplete question. However, I provided some explanation.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Note, in the stock/asset trading market, the term <em>'stock/asset is overvalued' </em>is used when the worth of a particular asset or stock is overestimated; in other words having a stock price that is too high considering the projects/company's usefulness.
Hence, the journalist's comments may have been based on this observation.
Answer:
The options are not correct:
Dr costs of good sold $15,800
Cr inventory $15,800
Explanation:
The 4,400 units sold consist of the 2,400 units purchased on 1 January at $4.00 per unit and the balance of 2,000 units from the purchase made on January 12 at $3.10 per unit
cost of goods sold=(2,400*$4)+(2,000*$3.10)=$15,800
The cost of goods sold is $15,800 ,neither is it $11,900 nor $11,800
The appropriate entries is to debit costs of good sold with $15,800 while merchandise inventory is credited with $15,800
Answer:
The maximum Southern Tours could pay to acquire the Holiday Vacations is the present is the value of the inflows to be generated from the target company.
The present of the target business is $519,799.59
Explanation:
That amount is the maximum that should be paid for the target business,depending on negotiation skills of Southern Tours' management.
A lower price could be bargained,which better makes the investment more profitable.
Find attached spreadsheet for detailed computations.
Answer:
$18,000 F
Explanation:
Actual overhead– Overhead Budgeted=
Overhead Controllable Variance
Actual overhead=$194,000
Overhead Budgeted=$212,000
$194,000–$212,000
=$18,000 F
(40,000 ×$3.80) + $60,000
=$152,000+$60,000
= $212,000
Therefore the manufacturing overhead controllable variance is $18,000 F
<span>The probability of incurring bankruptcy increases as a firm's debt/equity ratio decreases.
FALSE</span>