Answer:
brand dilution
Explanation:
According to the information in the question above, it is correct to say that Ferrari may run the risk of diluting the brand, which occurs when a brand has a very strong product, as in the case of Ferrari, which is a brand recognized for its luxury cars , and betting on a licensing strategy can lead to a loss of value because other product lines do not meet the quality and value standards perceived by consumers.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
c. 2.50 years
Explanation:
In the payback, we analyze in how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:
In year 0 = $500
In year 1 = $150
In year 2 = $200
In year 3 = $300
If we sum the first 2 year cash inflows than it would be $350
Now we deduct the $350 from the $500 , so the amount would be $150 as if we added the fourth year cash inflow so the total amount exceed to the initial investment. So, we deduct it
And, the next year cash inflow is $300
So, the payback period equal to
= 2 years + ($150 ÷ $300)
= 2.50 years
In 2.50 yeas, the invested amount is recovered.
 
        
             
        
        
        
The true statement is <em>D. When </em><em>BCA</em><em> is negative, it implies that government </em><em>budget deficits</em><em> and/or part of </em><em>domestic investment </em><em>are being financed with </em><em>foreign-controlled capital</em><em>.</em>
The above statement is based on the intimate relationship between a country's Balance of the Current Account (BCA) and how the country finances its domestic investments and pays for government expenditure.
Explanation:
National income = Y = GNP
Consumption = C
Private Investment = I
Government spending = G
Exports = X
Imports = M
Taxes = T
Therefore, the BCA = X-M = (S-1) + (T – G)
Where BCA = Balance of Current Account
Thus, the Balance of the Current Account (BCA) should be <u>positive</u> to avoid deficit-financing of government budgets.
Learn more: brainly.com/question/8859561
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The increase in earnings is $136511.56
Explanation:
Since the lease is a sale type of lease,it means that as soon as the machinery is delivered to the lessee,profit should be recognized on the lease transaction,which is computed below:
Profit on lease=present value of lease payments-costs
                          =$274149-$156000
                           =$118149
However,every six months interest is charged on the lease,which clearly indicates another source of earnings,the interest in the first six months is given below:
Interest=($274149-$44617)*8%
              =$18362.56
Please note that interest is charged after lease payment as lease payment is made in advance not in arrears.
Conclusively, the increase in earnings is $118149+$18362.56
That is $136511.56