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sweet [91]
3 years ago
7

Tell me the two correct answers ASAP.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
4 0

I'm outside your house right now Mark. In Onsted Michigan

Your school is Onsted Community Schools.

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Which of the following are true statements using the Associative Property of Multiplication?
Ray Of Light [21]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  a(bc) = (ab)c

Step-by-step explanation:

The associative property of multiplication says the product is the same regardless of how the factors are grouped. That is demonstrated by the equality ...

  a(bc) = (ab)c

3 0
3 years ago
You are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5. What is the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races
Veronika [31]

Answer:

The probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is 0.54432.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that you are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5.

There are total of 6 races.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6 races

            r = number of success = at most 2 lost

            p = probability of success which in our question is probability that

                  you lose a race =  1 - (3/5) = 2/5 or 0.4

Let X = <u><em>Number of races lost </em></u>

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.40)

Now, the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is given by = P(X \leq 2)

P(X \leq 2)  =  P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

=  \binom{6}{0} \times 0.40^{0} \times (1-0.40)^{6-0} + \binom{6}{1} \times 0.40^{1} \times (1-0.40)^{6-1} + \binom{6}{2} \times 0.40^{2} \times (1-0.40)^{6-2}  

=  1 \times1 \times 0.60^{6} + 6 \times 0.40^{1} \times 0.60^{5} +15\times 0.40^{2} \times 0.60^{4}  

=  <u>0.54432</u>

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an example of independent events?
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

A. Getting tails from a coin toss and drawing a king from a standard

deck of cards.

Step-by-step explanation:

In probability, independent events are two events that do not affect the outcome of the other. In the first option, whether or not tails is flipped in no way changes the likelihood of a king being drawn. So it is independent because each event can be performed independently of the other.

However, all of the other options are "without replacement". This is a common term used to describe dependent events because since the item is not being replaced, the sample size is changed. This changes the probability of the next outcome. They are called dependent events because the second event depends on the first.

5 0
3 years ago
Help? Not very good at math :(
maks197457 [2]
Add 438+184 and u should get your answer
8 0
4 years ago
Thank for answer my question
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

the Scale factor is 3:1 and the larger one would be 107.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes it Would bc am pro

6 0
3 years ago
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