Answer:
<u>Question 1</u>
The function 
is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.
The inverse of +6 is -6, so 
Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
<u>Question 2</u>
The function 
is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.
To find the inverse, replace f(x) with y:
Rearrange the equation to make x the subject:
Replace x with 
and y with x:
Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
Answer:
b=2A/h
Step-by-step explanation:
First I throw everything else to another side with A by dividing them
(A = b)/2h
then I get
b=2A/h
You start with: (assuming x equals the cost to enter and y the cost of going on the rollercoasters.)
x+5y=35
x+11y=59. Multiply the top equation by -1, and subtract the equations, giving you -6y=-24, divide by -6 into both sides of the equation, to get y=4. Now replace y in one of the original equations (I recommend x+5y=35) and solve for x, giving you x=15
The cost for entering is 15 dollars, while each coaster is 4 dollars more. You could simplify this by changing y into x and making it slope-intercept form, to track your cost. y=4x+15, so it has a slope of 4, and a y-intercept of 15. This answer should give you a good grade on a test.
