Answer:
What is allowance for doubtful debt?
This represents management's estimate of the amount of accounts receivable that will not be paid by customers. They are amount owed by debtors, whose likelihood of collection is not certain.
1 Bad debts expense Dr ($18,000 × 0.25%) $45
To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $45
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
2. Bad debts expense $45
($72 - $27)
To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $45
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
3 Bad debts expense $105
($72 + $33)
To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $105
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
4 Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $15
To Accounts Receivable $15
(Being the allowance for doubtful accounts is recorded)
Learn more about allowance for doubtful debts here : brainly.com/question/25687295
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Debit to Accounts Receivable
Explanation:
Transaction of sale in Perpetual Inventory system will be recorded as follow:
Dr. Cr.
Account Receivable xxx
Sales xxx
Cost of Goods Sold xxx
Merchandise Inventory xxx
There is no entry to purchases, cost of goods sold is debited and inventory is credited. So, the only correct option which is dealt in above transactions.
<em>MISSING INFORMATION:</em>
concept // Year 2 // Year 1
Sales 7,620 7,450
Account Receivables 655 588
Answer:
Yes, there is. The days to collect increase by 4.16 to 29.77 from 26.61
Which is a bad sing as the company delays more to collect form their customers
Explanation:
Account Receivable turnover:
Average receivable:
(458 + 588 ) / 2 = 523
7,450 / 523 = 14.25
Days to collect: 365 / 14.25 = 25,61
Second Year:
Average receivable: (655 + 588) / 2 = 621.5
Turnover: 7,620 / 621.5 = 12.26
Days to collect: 365 / 12.26 = 29,77
29.77 - 25.61 = 4.16
Answer: D. 2.2%
Explanation: Equity Dividend Rate is calculated by dividing the Before Tax Cash Flow by the Acquisition price. If you need the answer in percentage form, you then multiply by 100.
Here, before-tax cash flow = $11,440
Acquisition price = $520,000
So Equity Dividend Rate = 
X 100
Equity Dividend Rate = 2.2%
In this question, you do not need the Net Operating Income (NOI). You only need the NOI if the Before Tax Cash Flow is not given and the debt service payment is. If this is the case, you subtract the debt service payment from the NOI to get the Before Tax Cash Flow.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Profit is Maximize when MR = MC
since MR=40 - 0.5Q
and MC= 4
Therefore:
40-0.5Q = 4
-0.5Q = 4 - 40
-0.5Q= -36
divide through by -0.5
Q = 72
since Q = 72
from Q = 160 - 4p
72 = 160 - 4P
-4p = 72 - 160
-4P = -88
divide through by -4
P = 22
