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pshichka [43]
3 years ago
13

0.4, 0.04, 0.44, 0.444, 0.404, 0.044 in order smallest first

Mathematics
2 answers:
Misha Larkins [42]3 years ago
5 0

I'm pretty sure it's  0.04, 0.044, 0.4, 0.404, 0.44, 0.444.

melomori [17]3 years ago
5 0
0.04, 0.044, 0.4, 0.404, 0.44, 0.444
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What are the solution(s) of the quadratic equation 98 – x2 = 0? x = x = x = no real solution
Svet_ta [14]
I hope this helps you

7 0
3 years ago
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The coordinates of point A on a grid are (−1, 6). Point A is reflected across the y-axis to obtain point B. The coordinates of p
elena55 [62]
When you reflect across the y axis the y coordinate stays the same and the x coorrdinate changes sign  so x = -1 goes to x = 1

Answer point B is (1,6)
6 0
3 years ago
A 40-m-long chain hangs vertically from a cylinder attached to a winch. Assume there is no friction in the system and the chain
daser333 [38]

Answer:

a) W₁ = 78400 [J]

b)Wt = 82320 [J]  

Step-by-step explanation:

a) W = ∫ f*dl      general expression for work

If we have a chain with density of 10 Kg/m, distributed weight would be

9.8 m/s² * 10 kg   = mg

Total length of th chain is 40 m, and the function of y at any time is

f(y) = (40 - y ) mg   where ( 40 - y ) is te length of chain to be winded

At the beggining we have to wind 40 meters   y = 0 at the end of the proccess  y = 40 and there is nothing to wind then:

f(y) = mg* (40 - y )

W₁ =  ∫f(y) * dy    ⇒ W₁ = ∫₀⁴⁰ mg* (40 - y ) dy  ⇒ W₁ = mg [ ∫₀⁴⁰ 40dy - ∫₀⁴⁰ ydy

W₁ = mg [ 40*y |₀⁴⁰   -  1/2 * y²  |₀⁴⁰    ⇒  W₁ = mg* [ 40*40 - 1/2 (40)² ]

W₁ = mg * [1/2]     W₁ = 10*9,8* ( 800 )

W₁ = 78400 [J]

b) Now we can calculate work to do if we have a 25 block and the chain is weightless

W₂ = ∫ mg* dy     ⇒    W₂  = ∫₀⁴⁰ mg*dy   ⇒    W₂  = mg y |₀⁴⁰

W₂ = mg* 40   = 10*9.8* 40  

W₂ = 3920 [J]

Total work

Wt = W₁  +  W₂        ⇒    Wt = 78400 + 3920

Wt = 82320 [J]

6 0
3 years ago
Y=5/2x -4 how to graph it
Igoryamba

Looking at y=-%285%2F2%29x we can see that the equation is in slope-intercept form y=mx%2Bb where the slope is m=-5%2F2 and the y-intercept is b=0 note: y=-%285%2F2%29x really looks like y=-%285%2F2%29x%2B0

Since b=0 this tells us that the y-intercept is .Remember the y-intercept is the point where the graph intersects with the y-axis

So we have one point  

Now since the slope is comprised of the "rise" over the "run" this means

slope=rise%2Frun

Also, because the slope is -5%2F2, this means:

rise%2Frun=-5%2F2

which shows us that the rise is -5 and the run is 2. This means that to go from point to point, we can go down 5 and over 2

So starting at , go down 5 units

and to the right 2 units to get to the next point  

Now draw a line through these points to graph y=-%285%2F2%29x

So this is the graph of y=-%285%2F2%29x through the points  

Hope this helps

Please give me Brainliest

8 0
3 years ago
Help with a question
jolli1 [7]
 If my above assumption is correct, we can easily find the area of the left side of the rectangle by finding the area of 3 things. The first is the area of the entire region.

At = (0.8)(1.0+1.4) = 1.92

Next we need the area of the circle. Which is pi*r^2, with r being height divided by two. (0.4)
C = 0.502

Finally we need to find the area of the rectangle left region. Which is basically the rectangle from the center of the circle region to the end of the left of the entire region. This is just (1.0)(0.8) = 0.8

Finally we can find the area of the light blue area by just subtracting half the area of the circle (dark blue) from the area we just calculated.
0.8 - (0.502 / 2) = 0.549

Now for the probability we do this area divided by total area.

0.549/1.92 = 0.285 or about 0.29 which is just 29%
4 0
3 years ago
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