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zavuch27 [327]
3 years ago
11

During its first year of operations, Mack's Plumbing Supply Co. had sales of $550,000, wrote off $8,800 of accounts as uncollect

ible using the direct write-off method, and reported net income of $60,500. Determine what the net income would have been if the allowance method had been used, and the company estimated that 2.5% of sales would be uncollectible.
Business
1 answer:
vova2212 [387]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$60,500

Explanation:

With regards to the above, the write off does not affect the realizable value of accounts receivables. Also, the total asset or net income is not affected by the write off or specific account. Instead, both assets and net income are affected in the period when bad debt expense is predicted and then recorded with an adjusting entry.

Accounts receivables

$550,000

Less:

Allowance for doubtful account

($550,00 × 2.5%)

($13,750)

Estimated realizable accounts receivables

$536,250

If the amount of bad debt decreases or increases as given below, then the income is also increased or decreased by the amount given.

Bad debts = $13,750

Uncollectible previously written off = $8,800

Difference

$4,950

Net income

$60,500

Less:

Difference

($4,950)

Reported income

$55,550

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The theory that higher-income taxpayers should be taxed less because their savings and investments stimulate the economy is know
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

The correct answer is: supply side economics.

Explanation:

Supply-side economics is a macroeconomic theory which advocates lowering of taxes and decrease in regulation to boost economic growth. It is directly in contrast to demand-side economics.  

This theory focuses on reducing taxes, decreasing regulations on producers and declining borrowing rates.  

This theory states that economic growth can be stimulated by boosting investments through tax reduction.

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true about a "credit"? I. It is part of the double-entry procedure that keeps the accounting equation
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

III. I, II, III, and IV.

  • I. It is part of the double-entry procedure that keeps the accounting equation in balance.
  • II. It represents a decrease to assets.
  • III. It represents an increase to liabilities.
  • IV. It is on the right side of a T-account.

Explanation:

The debit-credit balance is necessary for maintaining the accounting equation in balance, i.e. all the debits must have a corresponding credit.

Asset accounts increase when they are debited and decrease when they are credited.

Liabilities accounts decrease when they are debited and increase when they are credited.

Debits are on the left side of a t-account and credits are on the right side.

3 0
4 years ago
A bank that has liabilities of $150 billion and a net worth of $20 billion must have:
Yakvenalex [24]
Had to look for the options and here is my answer. Given that the bank possesses a liability that is worth $150 billion and its net worth is only $20 billion, then this would mean that the bank must have ASSETS OF $170 BILLION. Hope this answers your question.
7 0
3 years ago
A consumer products company produces inexpensive goods in underdeveloped markets, then repackages them as cost-effective innovat
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

B) False

Explanation:

Glocalization is a term that combines both globalization and localization. It was first used during the 1980s in Japan to define a way of thinking and developing business strategies: think locally and act globally.

Back in the 1980s Japan's economy was booming, it was the second largest economy in the world and Japanese car manufacturers and technological firms were wiping out the competition. This term refers to the western interpretation of Japanese business strategies of that decade, of selling similar but differentiated products everywhere.

E.g. American car manufacturers used to complain that Japanese consumers wouldn't buy their cars in Japan, but they simply had the steering wheel on the wrong side and Japanese consumers were not willing to even try them for that reason.

Luckily, things have changed and American companies also realized that their reality is not necessarily the reality of the rest of the world, and you must adapt your products to different markets.  

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Rearden Metal currently has no debt and has an equity cost of capital of 12%. Rearden is considering borrowing fund
Alexxandr [17]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

We have to use MM proposition that cost of equity will change itself in such a manner so that it can take care of its debt.

Cost of equity:

= WACC of all equity firm + (WACC of all equity - Cost of debt ) × (Debt -to-equity ratio)

At the beginning, when there was no debt,

WACC = cost of equity = 12 %

Levered cost of equity:

= 12% + ( 12% - 6%) × 0.5

= 15%

Therefore, Rearden's levered cost of equity would be closest to 15%.

4 0
4 years ago
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