Answer:
50.27
Step-by-step explanation:
sorry thats all I dont feel like writing the explanation- have a great day-
Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
I am not sure if that is correct but....
40/5=8
Step-by-step proving:
8*4=32
40-32=8
*I was proving my answer not explaining that much and the title is cringy*
Imma just solve for f⁻¹(x) for this one
to solve fr the invers
replace f(x) with y
switch x and y
solve for y
replace y with f⁻¹(x)
I'm assuming your thing is
remember
translates to
so
if we replace y with f(x)
switch
translate
minus 4
evaluate
it equals 4
Answer:
<u>------------------------------</u>
hope it helps...
have a great day!!