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dlinn [17]
3 years ago
6

Help plz:))) I’ll mark u brainliest

Mathematics
1 answer:
cestrela7 [59]3 years ago
5 0
Answer:

Explanation:

Angle 1 = Angle 2 (Alternate Interior Angle)

Since they are equal it should mean that the sides are parallel
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So desperate giving all of my points for this. Please show work and I'll give Brainliest. Please god please god please god
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here you go someone already has answered this question before <3

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Nia answered 80% of the 40 questions on a test correctly. How many correct answers did she have?
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Nia answered correct answers = 80% of the 40 questions

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\bf \begin{array}{cccccclllll}&#10;\textit{something}&&\textit{varies directly to}&&\textit{something else}\\ \quad \\&#10;\textit{something}&=&{{ \textit{some value}}}&\cdot &\textit{something else}\\ \quad \\&#10;y&=&{{ k}}&\cdot&x&#10;&&  y={{ k }}x&#10;\end{array}\\ \quad \\&#10;

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\bf \begin{array}{llllll}&#10;\textit{something}&&\textit{varies inversely to}&\textit{something else}\\ \quad \\&#10;\textit{something}&=&\cfrac{{{\textit{some value}}}}{}&\cfrac{}{\textit{something else}}\\ \quad \\&#10;y&=&\cfrac{{{\textit{k}}}}{}&\cfrac{}{x}&#10;&&y=\cfrac{{{  k}}}{x}&#10;\end{array}&#10;

now, we know that V varies directly to T and inversely to P simultaneously
thus\bf V=T\cdot \cfrac{k}{P}

so     \bf V=T\cdot \cfrac{k}{P}\qquad &#10;\begin{cases}&#10;V=42\\&#10;T=84\\&#10;P=8&#10;\end{cases}\implies 42=\cfrac{84k}{8}\implies 4=k&#10;\\\\\\&#10;V=\cfrac{4T}{P}\qquad now\quad &#10;\begin{cases}&#10;V=74\\&#10;P=10&#10;\end{cases}\implies 74=\cfrac{4T}{10}\implies 185=T
7 0
3 years ago
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