Help please its too hard

Mathematics

1 answer:

Varvara68 [4.7K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

#6 = 1; #7 = A (5 gallons)

Step-by-step explanation:

#6 it is 1 because you are suppose to divide 10% of 50 which gave yuu $5 and then divide 5 by 20% which is 1

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Plz help me it’s emergency

BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

idk

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 can also be written as .25

1 divided by 4 is .25

114 times .25 = answer

154 times .25 = answer

3 0

3 years ago

Consider a game in which a participant pays $2 to roll a die. The participant receives $3 if they roll a 1 (i.E. They go up by a

Sauron [17]

Answer:

The expected monetary value of a single roll is $1.17.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample space of rolling a die is:

S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6}

The probability of rolling any of the six numbers is same, i.e.

P (1) = P (2) = P (3) = P (4) = P (5) = P (6) = $\frac{1}{6}$

The expected pay for rolling the numbers are as follows:

E (X = 1) = $3

E (X = 2) = $0

E (X = 3) = $0

E (X = 4) = $0

E (X = 5) = $0

E (X = 6) = $4

The expected value of an experiment is:

$E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)$

Compute the expected monetary value of a single roll as follows:

$E(X)=\sum x\cdot P(X=x)\\=[E(X=1)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=2)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=3)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[E(X=4)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=5)\times \frac{1}{6}]+[E(X=6)\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=[3\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]\\+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[0\times \frac{1}{6}]+[4\times \frac{1}{6}]\\=1.17$