1) The probability of rolling a 1 is 10/40 and the probability of rolling a 5 is 6/40. Add these together to get 16/40 which simplifies to 2/5 probability of rolling a 1 or 5.
2) The probability of the spinner landing on section 2 is 36/80 which simplifies to 9/20
3) To find the relative frequency, divide each number by the total number of trials. In this case we're only look at the clubs so divide 8/40, which is 0.2 or 20%
4) There were 60 trials total and since we're finding the relative frequency of red, divide 13/60 which is 0.216 rounded to 0.22 or 22%
5) The spinner is spun 84 times and it lands on A 14 times so the probability of it landing on A is 14/84 which simplifies to 1/6 or 0.166 rounded to 0.17 or 17%
I hope this helps you!
A = πr². So, 14 / 2 = 7 inches (radius). A = (3.14)(7)² || A = (3.14)(49) || A = 153.86 Inches ². Hope this helps!
Answer:
f(x)=8,000(0.08)
Step-by-step explanation:
I am not 100% sertin but 8% = 0.08 so to find the percentage you would just multiple that by the given 8,000.
you have to simplify it
then isolate the variable
then you will get x=6
Answer:
3.6 cm or 36mm
Step-by-step explanation:
So we know that there are 10 millimetres in a centimetre. So we can convert the 18cm into millimetres to make it easy to subtract
18cm*10=180mm
now take the pencil length subtracted by the length of the pen.
180mm-144mm=36mm
now if you want the answer in cm, convert it by dividing the answer by 10
36/10=3.6cm
<em>Hope This Helps :)</em>