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netineya [11]
2 years ago
11

The minimum efficient scale is:Group of answer choicesthe minimum output level where the firm’s average total costs are lowest

.the output level where the firm’s average total costs will increase.the minimum quantity where a firm would be able to produce profitably.the quantity after which it makes no sense for a firm to produce.
Business
1 answer:
Ahat [919]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the minimum output level where the firm's average total costs are lowest.

Explanation:

When we are analyzing a firm's long-run average cost (LRAC) curve, the minimum efficient scale is the lowest point or range on the curve. This means that at this point or range, minimum production costs are achieved. It is supposed to be the point or range at which the firm should be able to maximize its profits, although that doesn't only depend on costs but also on revenues. The point at which profits are maximized is given by the intersection of the marginal revenue curve and the minimum efficient scale.  

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Preferred stockholders: A. have the right to receive dividends only if there are enough dividends to pay the common stockholders
olga55 [171]

Answer:

D. have the right to receive dividends only in the years the board of directors declares dividends.

Explanation:

As we know that the dividend is received when the board of director declared the dividend for that the company should have enough balance for distribution of dividend

After declaring the dividend the first priority is given to the preference stockholders after distributing them the remaining amount is distributed to common stockholders

This can all happen after declaring the dividend by the board of directors

3 0
3 years ago
Jiminy’s Cricket Farm issued a 20-year, 7 percent semiannual coupon bond 4 years ago. The bond currently sells for 104 percent o
Lesechka [4]

Answer:

6.64%

Explanation:

The pretax cost of debt is the Yield to Maturity (YTM). Since the coupons are paid semiannually, adjust the duration and the coupon payment amount to semi-annual terms.

You can solve for the YTM using a financial calculator with the following inputs;

Maturity of the bond; N = 20*2 = 40

Face value ; FV = 1000

Semi-annual coupon payment ; PMT = (7%/2)*1000 = 35

Current price of the bond; PV = -1.04*1000 = -1040

Then compute the semiannual interest rate ; CPT I/Y =  3.318%

Therefore, pretax cost of debt; YTM = 3.318 *2 = 6.64%

3 0
3 years ago
Mag bigay programang pampamahalaan sa panahon ng komonweit​
aniked [119]
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6 0
3 years ago
A machine with a cost of $75,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years or 18,000 hours. Wha
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

The answer is:  $18, 750

Explanation:

The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:

Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period

Machine cost: $75, 000

Residual Value: $5, 000

Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours

Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%

Depreciation Year 1 on DDB =  2 * 25% * $75, 000

                                               = $37, 500

Depreciation Year 2 on DDB =  2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)

                                               = $18, 750

       

4 0
3 years ago
2. Statistically, consumers tell more people about negative experiences in business encounters than about positive experiences.
sergey [27]
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4 0
3 years ago
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