Answer:
D. 0.74.
Step-by-step explanation:
It is a BINOMIAL trial, which means that there are only two outcomes: either success, or failure.
So, if the probability of success is 0.26, the probability of failure will be 1 - 0.26 = 0.74.
Hope this helps!
What is the lower quartile, Q1, of the following data set? 48, 43, 34, 59, 62, 75, 30, 71, 37, 66, 53, 21, 40, 56, 25
Stolb23 [73]
I believe the answer is 34. I plugged the values into the STAT button on my graphing calculator and went into 1-Var Stats.
Ex: f: R ---> R
f(x)=2x+1
Definition: For every value of x , exists only one value of f(x)
f(1)=2*1+1, f(1)=2*1+1=3
f(2)=2*2+1=4+1=5
......
f(100)=2*100+1=200+1=201
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
14.26
Step-by-step explanation:
brainliest plz
