Answer:
10.5%
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
where,
Risk free rate of return = 7%
Market rate of return = 14%
And, the beta is 0.5
So the expected return is
= 7% + 0.5 × (14% - 7%)
= 7% + 0.5 × 7%
= 7% + 3.5%
= 10.5%
Answer: b) Loss of $7,500,000.
Explanation:
The total the investment bank paid when underwriting was:
= 10.50 * 10,000,000 shares
= $105,000,000
The total they then sell to the public is:
= 9.75 * 10,000,000
= $97,500,000
The profit is:
= Selling revenue from public - Buying cost from company
= 97,500,000 - 105,000,000
= -$7,500,000
The answer to this question is: <span>additional costs and benefits.
</span><span> is an examination of the additional benefits that received from doing an activity compared to the cost that must be incurred in order to do that activity.
</span>This analysis will help companies to determine what operations that they should maintain in the future in order to keep the profit margin of the company.
A decrease in transfer payments has the same basic effect on aggregate demand as larger the marginal propensity to save.
<h3>What is aggregate demand?</h3>
Aggregate demand refers to the total amount of the money spent on the purchase of the commodity for the particular period of time. It includes the demand of the consumer goods, imports, and government spending.
When the change in the transfer payments, it affects the consumption level of the individual, which results in the shift in the aggregate demand of the product.
Therefore, it can be concluded that A reduction in transfer payments has the same basic effect on aggregate demand as an increase in the marginal propensity to save.
Learn more about aggregate demand here:
brainly.com/question/24319248
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