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Triss [41]
3 years ago
6

Please help fast!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
meriva3 years ago
4 0
I think the answer is 5 but I got 5.1
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I need help with 2. how do I prove?
Agata [3.3K]
First off, your handwriting needs a bit of help. Do you expect people to read that?
7 0
3 years ago
Josh's team scored 40 points at the game. Josh scored 15% of the team points. How many points did Josh score.
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

15/100x 40= 6

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
• karger's min cut algorithm in the class has probability at least 2/n2 of returning a min-cut. how many times do you have to re
MrRissso [65]
The Karger's algorithm relates to graph theory where G=(V,E)  is an undirected graph with |E| edges and |V| vertices.  The objective is to find the minimum number of cuts in edges in order to separate G into two disjoint graphs.  The algorithm is randomized and will, in some cases, give the minimum number of cuts.  The more number of trials, the higher probability that the minimum number of cuts will be obtained.

The Karger's algorithm will succeed in finding the minimum cut if every edge contraction does not involve any of the edge set C of the minimum cut.

The probability of success, i.e. obtaining the minimum cut, can be shown to be ≥ 2/(n(n-1))=1/C(n,2),  which roughly equals 2/n^2 given in the question.Given: EACH randomized trial using the Karger's algorithm has a success rate of P(success,1) ≥ 2/n^2.

This means that the probability of failure is P(F,1) ≤ (1-2/n^2) for each single trial.

We need to estimate the number of trials, t, such that the probability that all t trials fail is less than 1/n.

Using the multiplication rule in probability theory, this can be expressed as
P(F,t)= (1-2/n^2)^t < 1/n 

We will use a tool derived from calculus that 
Lim (1-1/x)^x as x->infinity = 1/e, and
(1-1/x)^x < 1/e   for x finite.  

Setting t=(1/2)n^2 trials, we have
P(F,n^2) = (1-2/n^2)^((1/2)n^2) < 1/e

Finally, if we set t=(1/2)n^2*log(n), [log(n) is log_e(n)]

P(F,(1/2)n^2*log(n))
= (P(F,(1/2)n^2))^log(n) 
< (1/e)^log(n)
= 1/(e^log(n))
= 1/n

Therefore, the minimum number of trials, t, such that P(F,t)< 1/n is t=(1/2)(n^2)*log(n)    [note: log(n) is natural log]
4 0
3 years ago
ANSWER CORRECT FOR BRAINLIEST - 10 POINTS
zhenek [66]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

/////

ha

8 0
3 years ago
Find more answers to 1+1
lawyer [7]
The answer in binary is 10
7 0
2 years ago
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