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slamgirl [31]
3 years ago
9

Billed a customer 4500 for work completed to date log as what on t-account

Business
1 answer:
anygoal [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

On t-account, it will be logged as Accounts Receivable $4,500 and Service Revenue $4,500.

Explanation:

a) Data and Analysis:

Accounts Receivable $4,500 Service Revenue $4,500

b) The company's assets have been increased by $4,500, and its Equity has been increased by $4,500 (through Service Revenue in Retained Earnings).  When the customer pays for the work completed, the Cash account will be debited and the Accounts Receivable credited.

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The hedge ratio of a call option is
natima [27]

Answer:

A positive constant

Explanation:

the hedge ratio cimparez the amount of a position that is hedged to the entire position

7 0
2 years ago
You saving up to buy a car. You plan on making your first savings deposit one year from today, and then making deposits for the
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

$10,904.84

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Year  Deposit amount ($)  At 9% for 3 years Future value of deposits ($)

1            $1,500                            (1.09)^3 = 1.295029        $1,942.54

2             $3,000                    (1.09)^2 = 1.1881                 $3,564.3

3            $2,200                            (1.09)^1 = 1.09                 $2,398

4             $3,000                               1                                 $3,000

Total                                                                                   $10,904.84

Future value = cash flow × (1 + interest rate)^number of years

When the amount of $10,904.84 is available, I buy the car.

4 0
3 years ago
Turner, a successful executive, is negotiating a compensation plan with his potential employer. The employer has offered to pay
zzz [600]

Answer:

b. If the employer accepts Turner's counteroffer, Turner will recognize as gross income $55,000 per month [($480,000 + $180,000)/12].

Explanation:

Given that

Turner annual salary = $600,000

Counteroffer to received a monthly salary = $40,000 or $480,000 annually

And, $180,000 bonus in 5 years at the age of 65

So the benefit he will be getting would be after accepting the counter offer is

= ($480,000 + $180,000) ÷ 12 months

= $660,000  ÷ 12 months

= $55,000

6 0
3 years ago
Perdue Company purchased equipment on April 1 for $38,880. The equipment was expected to have a useful life of three years, or 5
finlep [7]

Answer:

See explanation section.

Explanation:

Requirement 1

We know,

Depreciation expense under the straight-line method = (Cost price - residual value) ÷ useful life

The depreciation expense under the straight-line method remains same in every year.

December 31, Year 1 - depreciation expense = ($38,880 - $1,080) ÷ 3 years.

Depreciation expense = ($37,800 ÷ 3)

Depreciation expense = $12,600

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $12,600 × 9 ÷ 12

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $9,450

Requirement 2

The depreciation expense under the straight-line method remains the same every year.

Year 2 depreciation expense = ($38,880 - $1,080) ÷ 3 years = $12,600

Year 3 depreciation expense = ($38,880 - $1,080) ÷ 3 years = $12,600

Year 4 depreciation expense = ($38,880 - $1,080) ÷ 3 years = $12,600

The equipment will be dissolved after 4 year with a residual value of $1,080.

Requirement 3

The depreciation expense under units-of-activity method = [(Cost price - residual value) ÷ Total operating hours] × usage during the period.

Given,

Cost price = $38,880

residual value = $1,080

Total operating hours =  5,400

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Depreciation expense rate = ($38,880 - $1,080) ÷  5,400

Depreciation expense rate = $37,800 ÷ 5,400

Depreciation expense rate = $7 per hour.

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $7 per hour × 1,000

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $7,000

Requirement 4

We get from requirement 3

Depreciation expense rate = $7 per hour.

Year 2 Depreciation expense = $7 per hour.

Depreciation expense for year 2 = $7 per hour × 1,900 hour.

Depreciation expense for year 2 = $13,300 hour.

Year 3 Depreciation expense = $7 per hour.

Depreciation expense year 3 = $7 per hour ×  1,600 hour.

Depreciation expense year 3 = $11,200 hour.

Year 4 Depreciation expense = $7 per hour.

Depreciation expense year 4 = $7 per hour ×  900 hour.

Depreciation expense year 4 = $6,300 hour.

Requirement 5

Depreciation rate under the double-declining-balance method = (100% ÷ useful life) ÷ 2

Depreciation rate = (100% ÷ 3 years) × 2

Depreciation rate = 66.67%

Depreciation expense for year 1 = cost price × depreciation rate

Given,

cost price = $38,880

depreciation rate = 66.67%

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Depreciation expense for year 1 = cost price × depreciation rate

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $38,880 × 66.67%

Depreciation expense for year 1 = $25,921

Requirement 6

In double-declining-balance method, depreciation expense is decreasing.

Book value of year 1 after depreciation = Cost price - year 1 depreciation expense =  $38,880 - $25,921 = $12,959

Depreciation expense for year 2 = Book value of year 1 × depreciation rate.

Depreciation expense for year 2 = ($12,959 × 66.67%) = $8,640

Book value of year 2 after depreciation = Book value of year 1 - Depreciation expense for year 2 = $12,959 - $8,640 = $4,319

Depreciation expense for year 3 = Book value of year 2 × depreciation rate.

Depreciation expense for year 3 = $4,319 × 66.67% = $2,879.50

Book value of year 3 after depreciation = Book value of year 2 - Depreciation expense for year 3 = $4,319 - $2,879.50 = $1,439.5

Depreciation expense for year 4 = Book value of year 3 × depreciation rate.

Depreciation expense for year 4 = $1,439.5 × 66.67% = $960

4 0
3 years ago
Lake City Corporation owns all the stock in Columbia Corporation. Pursuant to a plan of complete​ liquidation, Columbia distribu
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

Since on distribution on complete liquidation to shareholder will taxable on both hand (company and shareholdeR) .shareholder will pay tax on FMVless adjusted basis and corporate will pay tax on gain (FMV-adjusted basis of asset ).

since taxability in both hands will result in double taxation ,any gain/loss will be taxed in shareholders hand and corporate tax liability will be minimal'

so correct option is "D" -no gain recognised.

3 0
4 years ago
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