Answer 2/13
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 52 cards in a standard deck: 13 ordinal cards (Ace -10, jack, Queen, King)and 4 of them
- one to each sute (hearts, diamonds, clubs, spades ) and so we have 4x13=52
There are 8 card that fit the question (4 each of access and kings).
so if you in a random draw the odds of drawing one of those 8 card out of the total number of 52 is 8/52
which we simplify
8/2=2/13
Step-by-step explanation:
(-4)^11,13^9,9^7,(-24)^4
Answer:
I'm guessing, say all of them are 20 cm, by the looks of it
Answer:
infinitely many
Step-by-step explanation:
Rewrite these equations as
y = (1/2)x + 1
2y = x + 2
and then solve the second for y: y = (1/2)x + 1. Note that these end results are identical. The two lines coincide; that is, one lies right on top of the other. Thus, there are infinitely many solutions.
Well the probability of rolling a six on it would be 1/20.
So, if you're rolling it 1,000 times, 1,000 x 1/20 = 50.
You would roll a six approximately 50 times.
