Answer:
E) illusory correlation
Explanation:
An illusory correlation happens when someone mistakenly believes that the occurrence of one event will result in the occurrence of other unrelated events.
Psychologically every single one of us tends to create a relationship between unrelated events, but some simply go one step ahead and deeply believe in a strict cause-effect relationship.
For example, a lot of people tend to create a relationship between very beautiful women and not being smart. While being pretty has nothing to do with being intelligent. I've met beautiful women that are extremely smart and very capable at work, while other not beautiful women are simply the opposite.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
because it is not possible
Answer:
Correct answer is B.
<u>$26.86 per mile</u>
Explanation:
Total estimated cost for travel = 94000
Total miles driven = 3500
Overhead allocation rate = total estimated cost/total miles
= 94000/3500
=26.85714 or 26.86
If the united states government lowers the income taxes on the wealthiest americans, while decreasing welfare payments to the poorest americans, the result will likely be <u>increase</u><u> in</u>efficiency and in <u>inequality</u> in the united states
<h3>What is equality?</h3>
Equality can be defined as the way in which wealth or income are distributed equally or when their is equal wealth distribution in a society.
If the united state of America intend to reduce the income taxes of the richest people and reducing the poor people welfare payment the outcome of this action is that it will lead to inefficiency while increase equality or reducing inequality.
Therefore the result will likely be <u>increase </u>efficiency and in <u>equality</u> in the united states
Learn more about Equality here: brainly.com/question/1296408
#SPJ1
We need to compare the present values (PV) of all the expenses of all the investments to make an investment decision. The formula of PV = ((C1/(1+r)1) + ((C2/(1+r)2) + ((C3/(1+r)3) +…….+ ((Cn/(1+r)n) + present value of investment – present value of the salvage value
Where, Cn refers to the expense incurred in the nth period and r is the rate of interest per period.
For Machine A, present value of the expenses is
= ((1600/(1+0.20)1) + ((1600/(1+0.20)2) + 15,000 – ((3000/(1+0.20)2)
= 1333.33 + 1111.11 + 15000 – 2083.33
= 15361.11
For Machine B, present value of the expenses is
= ((400/(1+0.20)1) + ((400/(1+0.20)2) + ((400/(1+0.20)3) + ((400/(1+0.20)4) + 25,000 - ((4000/(1+0.20)2)
= 333.33 + 277.77 + 25,000 – 2777.77
= 22833.33
We can see that Machine A is the least cost alternative; therefore, Machine A should be selected.