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GREYUIT [131]
3 years ago
15

1. What is the theoretical probability that the family has two dogs or two cats?

Mathematics
1 answer:
gogolik [260]3 years ago
4 0

let dogs be heads. Let cats be tails. A coin has two sides, in which you are flipping two of them. Note that there can be the possible outcomes  

h-h, h-t, t-h, t-t.  

How this affects the possibility of two dogs & two cats. Note that there are 1/2 a chance of getting those two (with the others being one of each), which means that out of 4 chances, 2 are allowed.  

2/4 = 1/2  

50% is your answer

Heads represents cats and tails represents dogs. There is two coins because we are checking the probability of two pets. You have to do the experiment to get your set of data, once you get your set of data, you will be able to divide it into the probability for cats or dogs. To change the simulation to generate data for 3 pets, simply add a new coin and category for the new pet.

Hope this helps you out!

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

We assume you want the log of 462 to a base of 1/2. Using the change of base formula, this is ...

  \log_{0.5}{462}=\dfrac{\log{462}}{\log{0.5}}=-8.8517

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use Taylor's Theorem with integral remainder and the mean-value theorem for integrals to deduce Taylor's Theorem with lagrange r
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Answer:

As consequence of the Taylor theorem with integral remainder we have that

f(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)}{2!}(x-a)^2 + \cdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n + \int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^n}{n!}dt

If we ask that f has continuous (n+1)th derivative we can apply the mean value theorem for integrals. Then, there exists c between a and x such that

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}dt = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \int^a_x (x-t)^n d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \frac{(x-t)^{n+1}}{n+1}\Big|_a^x

Hence,

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{n!} \frac{(x-t)^{(n+1)}}{n+1} = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1} .

Thus,

\int^a_x f^{(n+1)}(t)\frac{(x-t)^k}{n!}d t = \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{n+1}

and the Taylor theorem with Lagrange remainder is

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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