Yes he did in 1600s with the british
He among you is the wisest who, like Socrates, knows that his wisdom is really worth nothing at all.
What does it mean? Socrates spoke with a man who was said by many to be wise, but found that this man, like countless others he had spoken to, had no more wisdom than Socrates had, [and that the man even became angry and refused to acknowledge his ignorance when Socrates showed him that this was so,] and therefore Socrates concluded that "it seems I am wiser than he is to this small extent, that I do not think I know what I do not know".
In other words, despite that all Socrates knows is that he has no wisdom, his wisdom isn't really "worth nothing at all". That is the paradox of Socratic ignorance.
Generally, the philosophes hoped to accomplish the followings:
- understand their monarchy society
- improve their monarchy society
<h3>Who are the
philosophes?</h3>
These refers to the materialistic writers and thinkers of the French Enlightenment era in the 18th century .
The two centuries of these philosophes were known to be the the 17th and 18th century.
In conclusion, the philosophes hoped to understand their monarchy society and improve their monarchy society.
Read more about philosophes
<em>brainly.com/question/1080908</em>
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<span>leather saddles and stirrups</span>
