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Lynna [10]
2 years ago
13

Question:

Mathematics
1 answer:
allochka39001 [22]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

It is A

Step-by-step explanation:

I cant explain step by step I am in a rush but it is A

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Ok so its 8 `1&8   2&7 3&6  4&5 and then all of those numbers reversed 
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The mailing list of an agency that markets scuba-diving trips to the Florida Keys contains 78% males and 22% females. The agency
choli [55]

Answer:

a) 0.98% probability that 17 of the 29 people are men.

b) 3.86% probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person chosen by the agency, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is a man, or it is a woman. The probability of selecting a man or a women in each trial is independent from other trials. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

(a) What is the probability that 17 of the 29 people are men?

This is P(X = 17) when n = 29, p = 0.78. So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 17) = C_{29,17}.(0.78)^{17}.(0.22)^{12} = 0.0098

0.98% probability that 17 of the 29 people are men.

(b) What is the probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call?

On the first 7 trials, all men, each with a 78% probability.

On the 8th trial, a women, with a 22% probability. So

P = (0.78)^{7}*0.22 = 0.0386

3.86% probability that the first woman is reached on the 8th call

4 0
3 years ago
What should we multiply the top equation by in order for both equations to have like coefficients?
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

If we multiply 2x-6y=26 by 2, we get 4x-12y=52 and the x's cancel out, making it easier to solve for y, using the elimination process.

Hope this makes sense!

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If the area of a circle measures 16 pi cm2, what is the circumference of the circle in terms of pi
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer: 8 pi

Step-by-step explanation: So we know that area of a circle is pi times r^2 so if we reverse that formula it would be square root of 16 pi which would be 4 pi and divide by pi so the radius is 4. And we know that the formula for circumference is 2 times pi times r, so 2 times 4 times pi is 8 pi. 8 pi is the cIrcumference! :)

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Solve for x.
Zigmanuir [339]
X/2 >= -4
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x >= -8
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