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Greeley [361]
3 years ago
8

F(x)=x+1, g(x)=-x, and h(x)=x^2+1 find (g of)(x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

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A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0

P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
3 years ago
How to solve V = 1/3 Ah for h
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

(3V)/A = h

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3 Ah

Solve the literal equation using inverse operations;

V = 1/3 Ah

*3    *3

3V = Ah

/A     /A

(3V)/A  = h

7 0
3 years ago
49 is 175% of what number?
jeyben [28]
x-\ number\\\\&#10;175\%x=49\\\\&#10;\frac{175}{100}x=49\\\\&#10;1,75x=49\ \ \ | divide\ by\ 1,75\\\\x=28\\\\&#10;49\ is\ 175\%\ of\ 28.&#10;
5 0
3 years ago
Enter the missing numbers in the boxes to complete the table of equivalent ratios.
Anna [14]

Answer:
3 3
6 9
9 15
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8 0
3 years ago
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Here is a list of numbers.
NARA [144]

~ Tanya needs to order the numbers correctly first.

~ 20, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 37

~ the median is: 31 +32 / 2 = 31.5

~ b) 31.5

7 0
3 years ago
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