The Waganer Act. The act legalized the right to strike, barred employers for firing worker for their union activities, and required them to negotiate in good faith with a union once it had been certified as a bargaining agent by the National Labor Relations Board<span>.
</span><span>The Social Security Act placed a tax of 2 percent on labor at a time when unemployment in the United States exceeded 15 percent. Raising the cost of labor at a time when millions of people were out of work was not a policy likely to get more people back to work. </span>
Answer:
Federalists, if that is an answer choice
Explanation:
Germany<span> claimed the treaty was hostile to them and Hitler used this as an excuse to send German troops into the </span>Rhineland<span> in March 1936, contrary to the terms of the treaties of Versailles and Locarno.</span>
B. helped prevent and cure diseases like tuberculosis and polio.
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
