Answer:
The probability of selecting a family with exactly one male child is 1/4 or 0.25.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given in the question,
possible outcomes for the children's genders
{FFFF, FFFM, FFMF, FMFF, MFFF, MFFM, MFMF, MMFF, FFMM, FMFM, FMMF, FMMM, MFMM, MMFM, MMMF, MMMM}
= 16
To find,
the probability of selecting a family with exactly one male child
<h3>Probability = favourable outcomes / possible outcomes</h3>
favourable outcomes = {FFFM, FFMF, FMFF, MFFF}
= 4
Probability = 4 / 16
= 1 / 4
= 0.25
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
He already has songs = 41
Since we are given that he purchase four songs every week .
So, in first week he purchase songs = 4
Initially he already has 41 songs
So, total songs after 1 week = 
After 2 weeks he will have songs = 
This forms an arithmetic sequence : 41,45,49......
Formula of nth term in A.P. : 
a = first term = 41
d = common difference = 45-41=49-45=4
Since we are required to find the new songs after110 weeks
So, n =110
Substituting values :
Thus Option A is correct.
Answer: because 4 would be greater than 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
84.78
Step-by-step explanation:
A=π r²
6*6(r²)=36
36*3.14(π)=113.04
113.04*3/4(it is 3/4 of a circle)=339.12/4
339.12/4=84.78
