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UkoKoshka [18]
3 years ago
14

Flyer Company has provided the following information prior to any year-end bad debt adjustment: Cash sales, $161,000 Credit sale

s, $461,000 Selling and administrative expenses, $121,000 Sales returns and allowances, $41,000 Gross profit, $501,000 Accounts receivable, $215,000 Sales discounts, $25,000 Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance, $2,300 Flyer prepares an aging of accounts receivable and the result shows that 4% of accounts receivable is estimated to be uncollectible. How much is bad debt expense
Business
1 answer:
laila [671]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$4,140

Explanation:

Given the above information, we will compute the bad debt expense as;

Bad debt expense

= (Cash sales × 4% of accounts receivables) - Credit balance in allowance for doubtful accounts

= ($161,000 × 4%) - Credit balance in allowance for doubtful accounts

= $6,440 - $2,300

= $4,140

Therefore, the bad debt expense is $4,140

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Gregory knew that he was going to have to pay a premium for buying a home in a certain area but was determined to do so because
labwork [276]

The characteristic of value that is represented here is <u>C. Situs.</u>

<h3>What is Situs?</h3>

Situs refers to the location of the property in legal terms.  The location of an asset adds or subtracts value from the property. Some properties are located in urban areas where the demand is much more than in suburbs or rural areas.  Such properties attract equivalent values based on their locations.

<h3>Answer Options:</h3>

A. Scarcity

B. Nolo Contendere

C. Situs

D. Caveat Emptor

Thus, the characteristic of value represented in this scenario is not scarcity, nolo contendere, or caveat emptor, but <u>Option C. Situs.</u>

Learn more about the location of a real estate at brainly.com/question/26010601

7 0
3 years ago
CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

6 0
3 years ago
A bank will often hold government securities as an asset. If a bank were to sell S500,000 in government securities to an individ
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:a.

It would increase by $500,000 multiplied by the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

Explanation:

A bank will often hold government securities as an asset. If a bank were to sell S500,000 in government securities to an individual who paid for the bond in cash and the bank placed this cash in its vault, by how much would the money supply change as a result  -  It would increase by $500,000 multiplied by the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

The money supply is the entire stock of currency and other liquid instruments circulating in a country's economy and is given by the formula:

MONEY SUPPLY = RESERVES X MONEY MULTIPLIER

Therefore the bank reserves increasing in the scenario will increase money supplier by the effect of the money multiplier or the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

5 0
3 years ago
Yeats Corporation's sales in Year 1 were $396,000 and in Year 2 were $380,000. Using Year 1 as the base year, the percent change
Ahat [919]

Answer:

Yeats Corporation

The percent change for Year 2 compared to the base year is -4.04%

Explanation:

a) Calculations:

Year 1 Sales = $396,000

Year 2 Sales = $380,000

Reduction = $16,000

Percentage reduction = $16,000/$396,000 x 100 = 4.04%

This is a reduction, and it is negative.

b) The change in sales is calculated as the difference between year 1 and year 2 sales over the sales in year 1 multiplied by 100.  This is expressed as a percentage by the multiplication by 100.  The percent change describes the relationship between the sales figure in year 1 and the sales figure in 2.  When calculated as above, it shows that sales reduced in year 2 by 4.04% from the sales in year 1.

3 0
3 years ago
Consider a bakery in your community. Ingredients such as sugar and butter would be examples of _____ costs.
scoray [572]

Ingredients such as sugar and butter would be examples of variable costs.

Fixed costs are cost that remain constant no matter the amount of output. Fixed costs examples are rent, loan, salaries.

Variable costs are cost which change with a change in output as the business provides more services. Variable cost examples are cost of raw materials, commissions and so on.

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5 0
3 years ago
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