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strojnjashka [21]
3 years ago
14

According to the OOH, what are some educational, training, certification, or licensing options required or helpful for Chefs? Ch

eck all that apply.
Business
2 answers:
Serga [27]3 years ago
5 0

The correct answer is:

A) medical school

C) internship and residency program

D) license

Explanation:

I tried his/her answer and it wasn't right. And I got this answer right.

butalik [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: a,b,f,g

Explanation: just did it on edge

You might be interested in
During its first year of operations, a company entered into the following transactions: Borrowed $20,000 from the bank by signin
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

$62,400

Explanation:

Assets are Economic resources controlled by the entity as a result of past events from which cash is expected to flow into the business.

Assets include the following Amounts:

Cash from Bank Note              $20,000

Cash from Stock Issues           $40,000

Supplies Inventory                     $4,000

Payment for Supplies                ($1,600)

Total Available Assets             $62,400

5 0
3 years ago
Stock Y has a beta of 1.3 and an expected return of 15.3 percent. Stock Z has a beta of 0.70 and an expected return of 9.3 perce
zmey [24]

Answer:

Reward-to-risk ratio Y =7.54%

Reward-to-risk ratio Z = 5.43%

Since the SML reward-to-risk is 6.8%

Stock Y is Undervalued

Stock Z Overvalued

Explanation:

Calculation for the reward-to-risk ratios for stocks Y is 7.54% and Z is 5.43% respectively.

Reward-to-risk ratio Y = (15.3%-5.5%)/1.3

Reward-to-risk ratio Y =7.54%

Reward-to-risk ratio Z = (9.3%-5.5%)/0.7 =

Reward-to-risk ratio Z = 5.43%

Therefore the reward-to-risk ratios for stocks Y and Z are and percent, respectively

Since the SML reward-to-risk is 6.8%

Stock Y is undervalued while Stock Stock Z on the other hand is overvalued reason been that

Reward-to-risk ratio Y is high while the Reward-to-risk ratio is low .

5 0
3 years ago
Hill Manufacturing uses departmental cost driver rates to apply manufacturing overhead costs to products. Manufacturing overhead
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

a. Manufacturing overhead allocation rate for each department.

<u>Machining Department</u>

Overhead allocation rate =  $2.50

<u>Assembly Department</u>

Overhead allocation rate = $4.00

b.  total cost of Job #846 is $6,505

Explanation:

a. Manufacturing overhead allocation rate for each department.

<u>Machining Department</u>

Overhead allocation rate = Overhead / Machine hours

                                          = $250,000/ 100,000

                                          = $2.50

<u>Assembly Department</u>

Overhead allocation rate = Overhead / direct labor-hours

                                          = $360,000/ 90,000

                                          = $4.00

b.  total cost of Job #846

Direct material cost :

Machining                               $2,700

Assembly                                 $1,600

Direct labor cost    :

Machining                                $ 400

Assembly                                 $ 900

Overhead Costs   :

Machining ( $2.50 × 170)        $ 425

Assembly ( $4.00 × 120)         $ 480

Total Cost                               $6,505

5 0
3 years ago
The Dog House has net income of $3,450 and total equity of $8,600. The debt-equity ratio is .60 and the payout ratio is 30 perce
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

21.29%

Explanation:

The computation of the internal growth rate is shown below:

But before that we need to determine the following calculations

Debt equity ratio js

= debt ÷ equity

The  debt is 0.6 of equity

So,

= 0.6 × $8,600

= $5,160

Now

Total assets = Total liabilities + Total equity

= $8,600 + $5,160

= $13,760

Return on assets = Net income ÷ Total assets

= $3450 ÷ $13760

 = 0.2507

Now  as we know that

Retention ratio = 1 - payout ratio

= 1 - 0.3

= 0.7

And, finally

The Internal growth rate is

= (Return on assets × Retention ratio) ÷ [1 - (Return on assets  × Retention ratio)]

= (0.2507 × 0.7) ÷ [1 - (0.2507 × 0.7)]

= 21.29%

6 0
3 years ago
Compute the depreciation and book value each year of a machine that costs $67,000 topurchase and $3,000 to install with an 8-yea
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

                                          Depreciation                      Book Value

                                              for year                             after year

                                                  $                                           $

Year 1 -                                   15,556                                 54,444

Year 2                                     13,611                                   40,833                                  

Year 3                                     11.667                                   29,667

Year 4                                      9,722                                   19,444

Year 5                                      7,778                                    11,667

Year 6                                      5,833                                     5,833

Year 7                                       3,889                                     1,944

Year 8                                       1,944                                           0

Explanation:

Computation of yearly depreciation using sum of the years method

Cost of equipment                                                                $ 67,000

Installation cost                                                                     <u>$   3,000</u>

Depreciable cost                                                                  $ 70,000

In a sum of the years method the mo of years are summed up and then depreciation  is applied with the highest number first.

Sum of the years = (1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8) = 36

Depreciable basis                                                                 $  70,000

Depreciation for year 1 = 8/36* 70,000                              <u> $ (15,556) </u>

Book value after year 1                                                          $ 54,444

Depreciation for year 2 = 7/36* 70,000                              <u> $ (13,611) </u>

Book value after year 2                                                          $ 40,833

Depreciation for year 3 = 6/36* 70,000                              <u> $  (11,667) </u>

Book value after year 3                                                          $ 29,667

Depreciation for year 4 = 5/36* 70,000                              <u> $  ( 9.722) </u>

Book value after year 4                                                          $ 19,444

Depreciation for year 5 = 4/36* 70,000                              <u> $   (7,778) </u>

Book value after year 5                                                        $    11,667

Depreciation for year 6 = 3/36* 70,000                              <u> $   (5,833) </u>

Book value after year 6                                                        $    5,883

Depreciation for year 7 = 4/36* 70,000                              <u> $   (3,889) </u>

Book value after year 7                                                        $    1,944

Depreciation for year 8 = 1/36* 70,000                              <u> $   (1,944) </u>

Book value after year 8                                                        $    0

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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