Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:a = m + (p-1)*d
b = m + (q-1)*d
c = m + (r-1)*d
p(b-c) = p*(q-r)*d
q(c-a) = q*(r-p)*d
r(a-b) = r*(p-q)*d
p(b-c)+q(c-a)+r(a-b)
= p*(q-r)*d + q*(r-p)*d +r*(p-q)*d
= (pq-pr+qr-pq+rp-qr)*d
= 0*d = 0
So i prove p(b-c)+q(c-a)+r(a-b)=0 hope this is helpfull
You should add the picture so we can see
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is: [C]: "30%" .
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Explanation:
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Note that: "%" ; or "percent" means "out of 100" ; or "divided by 100" .
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Method 1)
15/50 = ?/ 100 ;
Look at the denominators:
50 * (what value?) = 100 ? ; → "100 ÷ 50 = 2" ;
→ 50 * 2 = 100 ;
So: "15/50 = (15*2)/(50*2) = "30/100" ; which is "30%" .
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Method 2:
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"15/50" = (15÷5) / (50÷5) = 3/10 ;
3/10 = (3*10) / (10*10) = 30/100 ; which is: "30%" .
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Method 3: (slight variation of "Method 2" above):
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"15/50" = (15÷5) / (50÷5) = 3/10 ;
3/10 = 0.3 = 0.30 = (0.30 * 100) % = " 30% " .
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19-y because you are taking away y from 19
