Answer:
![(D)E[ X ] =np.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28D%29E%5B%20X%20%5D%20%3Dnp.)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p,


Since each term of the summation is multiplied by x, the value of the term corresponding to x = 0 will be 0. Therefore the expected value becomes:

Now,

Substituting,

Factoring out the n and one p from the above expression:

Representing k=x-1 in the above gives us:

This can then be written by the Binomial Formula as:
![E[ X ] = (np) (p +(1 - p))^{n -1 }= np.](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5B%20X%20%5D%20%3D%20%28np%29%20%28p%20%2B%281%20-%20p%29%29%5E%7Bn%20-1%20%7D%3D%20np.)
Since it is a parallelogram cente at point T,
then the measure of PT is equal to the measure of TR. And the measure of QT is
equal to the measure of TS.
PT = TR
a + 4 = 2a
4 = 2a -a
a = 4
PT = TR = 8 units
QT = TS
b = 2b -3
3 = 2b – b
b = 3
<span>QT = TS = 3 units</span>
Answer:
I believe you're supposed to solve for the other missing side. If you know a side (a) and the diagonal or also known as the hypotenuse (c), you will be able to solve for the other side using the Pythagorean theorem.
Step-by-step explanation:
a^2+b^2=c^2 Substitute the values for a and c
24^2+b^2=30^2 Solve for the powers
576+b^2=900 Subtract 576 from both sides
b^2=324 Solve for the root of 324
18=b
You would need 18 inches of material to cover one side of the suitcase.
The table on the far left
You can tell because every time the x value increases by 1, the y value increases by exactly 1/2 every time