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katrin2010 [14]
3 years ago
15

Pls helppppppppppp

Mathematics
2 answers:
mixas84 [53]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

okkk

Step-by-step explanation:

Ivahew [28]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I'm gonna say either 3/4 or 7/8. Don't quote me on it tho?!

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which products result in a perfect square trinomial? select three options. (negative x 9)(negative x minus 9) (x y x)(x y x) (2
erastovalidia [21]

The products that result in a perfect square trinomial is (x + y + x)(x + y + x), (2x - 3)(-3 + 2x) and (4y² + 25)(25 + 4y²)

<h3>What is an polynomial?</h3>

A polynomial is an expression that involves only the operations of a<em>ddition, subtraction, multiplication</em> of variables.

A perfect square trinomial is the square of a binomial

(x + y + x)(x + y + x) = (2x + y)²

(2x - 3)(-3 + 2x) = (2x - 3)²

(4y² + 25)(25 + 4y²) = (4y² + 25)²

The products that result in a perfect square trinomial is (x + y + x)(x + y + x), (2x - 3)(-3 + 2x) and (4y² + 25)(25 + 4y²)

Find out more on polynomial at: brainly.com/question/2972832

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
ANSWER FAST PLEASE!!!!<br> Which one is closer to 3?<br> 2.5 2 1/5
olasank [31]

Answer:

2.5 is closer

Step-by-step explanation:

Had this on a worksheet for math.

3 0
3 years ago
An urn contains three red balls and four blue balls. Draw two balls at random from the urn, without replacement. Compute the exp
mezya [45]

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

1 - probability to see 2 blue balls

1 - 4/7 × 3/6 = 1 - 12/42 = 30/42 = 0.714285714...

the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

1 red in first red in first red in second

but not second and second but not first

1×(3/7 × 4/6) + 2×(3/7 × 2/6) + 1×(4/7 × 3/6) = 12/42 + 12/42 + 12/42 = 36/42 = 6/7 = 0.857142857 ≈ 0.8571

7 0
2 years ago
Can someone do my math homework for me please? it's due tomorrow
belka [17]
What’s the question?
6 0
3 years ago
3.please help me out
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

125

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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