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3 years ago

12

8) A bag contains 5 red marbles and

1 answer:

hammer [34]3 years ago

7 0

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

the anwser would be either 2/3 or 1/3

You might be interested in

3 tons 600 pounds = ? Pounds

vovangra [49]

1 ton= 2,000 pounds

STEP 1:
Multiply number of tons by 2,000 pounds

= 3 tons * 2,000 lbs/ton
= 6,000 lbs

STEP 2:
Add the extra pounds given (600 pounds) to calculated pounds in step 1

= 6,000 lbs + 600 lbs
= 6,600 pounds

ANSWER: 3 tons 600 pounds is equal to 6,600 pounds.

Hope this helps! :)

6 0

3 years ago

What is the answer to (10y + 6)

schepotkina [342]

Answer:

2 ( 5 + 3 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Common factor

1 0 + 6 10y+6 2 ( 5 + 3 )

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can anyone help me please? Also explain if you can. Thank you :)

djverab [1.8K]

The answer is 6/9 or 2/3 because 2X2X2=8 and 9X9X9=729......it equals 8/729

3 0

3 years ago

Khalid invests $500 in an account that earns 1.5% interest per year, compounded annually. Which of the following is

Inessa [10]

<h2>D. Geometric Sequence </h2>

For your question: "Khalid invests $500 in an account that earns 1.5% interest per year, compounded annually. Which of the following is

formed by the amount in his account from year to year?"

The geometric sequence is formed.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

3.- In a certain desert region the average number of persons who become seriously ill each year from eating a certain poisonous

Naily [24]

Answer:

$P(X\geq 5)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^0}{0!}=0.001662$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^1}{1!}=0.010634$

$P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^2}{2!}=0.034029$

$P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^3}{3!}=0.072595$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^4}{4!}=0.116151$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) =0.76493$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

Let X the random variable that represent the number of people that will become sereiosly ill in two years. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this case the value for $\lambda$ would be:

$\lambda = 3.2 \frac{ills}{year} *2 years = 6.4$

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 5)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^0}{0!}=0.001662$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^1}{1!}=0.010634$

$P(X=2)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^2}{2!}=0.034029$

$P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^3}{3!}=0.072595$

$P(X=4)=\frac{e^{-6.4} 6.4^4}{4!}=0.116151$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 5) =0.76493$

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers