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Zanzabum
3 years ago
5

OPLEAS HELP ILL GIVE BRAUINLIEST

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kryger [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The bank is what pays you interest.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because when you put money in a savings account, the bank is technically borrowing the money and paying you interest in return.

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i think the answer is 50

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Someone please help! I’ll give brainliest!!
anyanavicka [17]

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The answer is 65.97 yd^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cone is: v = \pi r^{2}\frac{h}{3}

So, v = \pi(3^2)(7/3) = 65.97345 yd^3

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3 years ago
Cameron made a scale drawing of a house. The scale of the drawing was 1 inch = 1 foot.
Rashid [163]
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3 years ago
adams car can travel 450 miles on a full tank of gas. his gas tank can hold 15 gallons. kennys car can travel 416 miles on a ful
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450/15 = 30 mpg -- Adam's
416/13 = 32 mpg -- Kenny's

Kenny is going to get the better gas mileage at 32 mpg (miles per gallon)

8 0
4 years ago
(a) If G is a finite group of even order, show that there must be an element a = e, such that a−1 = a (b) Give an example to sho
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

See proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

First, notice that if a≠e and a^-1=a, then a²=e (this is an equivalent way of formulating the problem).

a) Since G has even order, |G|=2n for some positive number n. Let e be the identity element of G. Then A=G\{e} is a set with 2n-1 elements.

Now reason inductively with A by "pairing elements with its inverses":

List A as A={a1,a2,a3,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a1²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a1^(-1)≠a1, hence a1^(-1)=aj for some j>1 (it is impossible that a^(-1)=e, since e is the only element in G such that e^(-1)=e). Reorder the elements of A in such a way that a2=a^(-1), therefore a2^(-1)=a1.

Now consider the set A\{a1,a2}={a3,a4,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a3²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a3^(-1)≠a1, hence we can reorder this set to get a3^(-1)=a4 (it is impossible that a^(-1)∈{e,a1,a2} because inverses are unique and e^(-1)=e, a1^(-1)=a2, a2^(-1)=a1 and a3∉{e,a1,a2}.

Again, consider A\{a1,a2,a3,a4}={a5,a6,...,a_(2n-1)} and repeat this reasoning. In the k-th step, either we proved the theorem, or obtained that a_(2k-1)^(-1)=a_(2k)

After n-1 steps, if the theorem has not been proven, we end up with the set A\{a1,a2,a3,a4,...,a_(2n-3), a_(2n-2)}={a_(2n-1)}. By process of elimination, we must have that a_(2n-1)^(-1)=a_(2n-1), since this last element was not chosen from any of the previous inverses. Additionally, a_(2n1)≠e by construction. Hence, in any case, the statement holds true.

b) Consider the group (Z3,+), the integers modulo 3 with addition modulo 3. (Z3={0,1,2}). Z3 has odd order, namely |Z3|=3.

Here, e=0. Note that 1²=1+1=2≠e, and 2²=2+2=4mod3=1≠e. Therefore the conclusion of part a) does not hold

7 0
4 years ago
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